HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. A client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax is concerned about the continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What should the nurse explain to the client?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak.
- B. Continuous bubbling is normal and expected with a chest tube.
- C. Bubbling will stop when the lung has fully expanded.
- D. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube system indicates an air leak. An air leak can prevent the lung from fully re-expanding and may lead to complications like a recurrent pneumothorax. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate and address the air leak promptly. Choices B and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling is not normal and does not indicate lung expansion. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should first assess and then report the issue to the healthcare provider.
2. Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing a pressure ulcer?
- A. High-protein diet
- B. Frequent repositioning
- C. Immobility
- D. Active range of motion exercises
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Immobility is a significant risk factor for pressure ulcers because it leads to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body, reducing blood flow and leading to tissue breakdown. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A high-protein diet can actually aid in wound healing and tissue repair. Frequent repositioning helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. Active range of motion exercises can improve circulation and prevent muscle atrophy, thereby reducing the risk of pressure ulcers.
3. What is the best thing to say to a patient scheduled for cataract surgery who is concerned that the physician works on the correct eye?
- A. You are wearing an ID bracelet that will let the medical team know which eye to work on.
- B. When you are taken to the surgery area, the medical staff will confirm which eye needs the surgery.
- C. The surgeon will mark the correct eye before the cataract surgery based on your medical records.
- D. You will wear an ID bracelet, and the nurse will verify the eye scheduled for surgery by comparing it with your records and marking it with a permanent marker.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response reassures the patient by explaining the process of verifying and marking the correct eye, a safety measure to prevent wrong-site surgery, directly addressing the patient’s concern. Choice A is close but implies the ID bracelet alone determines the correct eye, missing the verification process. Choice B talks about confirmation but lacks details about marking the correct eye. Choice C mentions the surgeon's record but does not specify the direct verification and marking process, unlike Choice D.
4. A client with a recent total knee replacement is scheduled for physical therapy. The client refuses to participate, stating that the pain is too intense. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer the prescribed analgesic and encourage participation after it takes effect.
- B. Reschedule the physical therapy session for later in the day.
- C. Explain the importance of physical therapy for recovery.
- D. Notify the physical therapist of the client's refusal.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering pain medication before physical therapy helps manage the pain, making it easier for the client to participate in the necessary exercises to improve recovery and prevent complications such as joint stiffness. Choice B is not the first step as addressing the pain should take precedence. Choice C is important but should come after managing the pain to facilitate participation. Choice D involves another healthcare provider and is not the immediate action needed in this situation.
5. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?
- A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
- B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
- C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
- D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.
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