HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. A client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax is concerned about the continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What should the nurse explain to the client?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak.
- B. Continuous bubbling is normal and expected with a chest tube.
- C. Bubbling will stop when the lung has fully expanded.
- D. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube system indicates an air leak. An air leak can prevent the lung from fully re-expanding and may lead to complications like a recurrent pneumothorax. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate and address the air leak promptly. Choices B and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling is not normal and does not indicate lung expansion. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should first assess and then report the issue to the healthcare provider.
2. Which intervention is most appropriate when caring for a patient experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure?
- A. Restrain the patient to prevent injury
- B. Place a tongue depressor in the patient's mouth
- C. Turn the patient to the side to maintain an open airway
- D. Attempt to stop the seizure by holding the patient’s arms
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the priority is to ensure patient safety by maintaining an open airway to prevent aspiration. Turning the patient to the side helps achieve this goal by allowing any fluids to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration. Restraint can lead to injury, placing a tongue depressor can cause harm or obstruct the airway further, and attempting to stop the seizure by holding the patient's arms is ineffective and can also result in injury. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to turn the patient to the side.
3. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
- B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
- C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
- D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.
4. You are teaching students about how hyperosmotic agents (osmotic diuretics) are used to treat intracranial pressure. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of hyperosmotic agents?
- A. Reduces brain metabolism and systemic blood pressure
- B. Reduces cerebral edema
- C. Dehydrates the brain
- D. Draws fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperosmotic agents primarily work by reducing cerebral edema, dehydrating the brain, and drawing fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma. However, they do not have a direct effect on reducing brain metabolism or systemic blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is correct as hyperosmotic agents do help in reducing cerebral edema. Choice C is accurate as hyperosmotic agents dehydrate the brain. Choice D is also true as these agents draw fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma.
5. Which of the following is a primary intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
- A. Administering insulin
- B. Providing a complex carbohydrate meal
- C. Giving 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, like glucose tablets
- D. Encouraging the patient to exercise
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Giving 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets, is the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. This rapid-acting carbohydrate helps quickly raise blood sugar levels, providing immediate relief to the patient. Administering insulin (Choice A) would further lower blood sugar levels, exacerbating the hypoglycemia. Providing a complex carbohydrate meal (Choice B) would not act quickly enough to address the immediate low blood sugar issue. Encouraging the patient to exercise (Choice D) is inappropriate during hypoglycemia as it can further deplete glucose levels.
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