Nursing Elites

1. A client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax is concerned about the continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What should the nurse explain to the client?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak.
• B. Continuous bubbling is normal and expected with a chest tube.
• C. Bubbling will stop when the lung has fully expanded.
• D. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube system indicates an air leak. An air leak can prevent the lung from fully re-expanding and may lead to complications like a recurrent pneumothorax. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate and address the air leak promptly. Choices B and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling is not normal and does not indicate lung expansion. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should first assess and then report the issue to the healthcare provider.

2. The nurse is assisting with the admission of a young adult female Korean exchange student with acute abdominal pain. Although the client has been able to easily answer questions, when asked about sexual activity, she looks away. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Omit the section of the assessment form
• B. Ask her if she would like an interpreter to help her understand the question
• C. Reword the question to make it more culturally sensitive
• D. Observe the client's response when asked a different question

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Observing the client's response to another question is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By doing so, the nurse can assess whether the client's discomfort is due to cultural sensitivity or a misunderstanding. This approach allows the nurse to proceed with sensitivity and respect, ensuring effective communication. Option A is incorrect because omitting the section of the assessment form may result in missing crucial information relevant to the client's condition. Option B jumps to assumptions about a language barrier without confirming it first. Option C focuses on rewording the question without addressing the underlying issue causing the client's discomfort, which may not necessarily be due to a lack of understanding.

3. The PN reviews a client's medication history and learns that the client takes an anticoagulant and has recently started taking phenytoin. Which instruction should the PN provide when assigning the client's morning care to a UAP?

• A. Measure the temperature every 4 hours
• B. Elevate both feet on two pillows
• C. Initiate hourly turning schedule
• D. Protect skin from injury and bruising

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Protect skin from injury and bruising. Phenytoin and anticoagulants both increase the risk of bleeding. Protecting the skin from injury and bruising is critical to prevent complications, making it important to instruct the UAP accordingly. Measuring the temperature every 4 hours (Choice A) may not be directly related to the client's medications. Elevating both feet on two pillows (Choice B) is more relevant for issues like edema. Initiating an hourly turning schedule (Choice C) is important for preventing pressure ulcers, but in this case, the priority is to prevent bleeding due to the medications.

4. During the last 30 days, an elderly client has exhibited a progressively decreasing appetite, is spending increasing amounts of daytime hours in bed, and refuses to participate in planned daytime activities. Which action should the practical nurse take?

• A. Record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse
• B. Ask the family members to visit more often to stimulate the patient
• C. Motivate the client by offering favorite foods as a prize
• D. Withhold any medications that may cause side effects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The practical nurse should record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse. These behaviors may indicate a serious underlying condition such as depression or physical illness. By reporting to the charge nurse, the client can receive appropriate assessment and intervention promptly. Choice B is incorrect as family visits may not address the root cause of the symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and may not be effective in addressing the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because withholding medications without proper assessment and guidance can be harmful to the client's health.

5. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of calcium and phosphate in the blood?

• A. Parathyroid hormone
• B. Insulin
• C. Cortisol
• D. Thyroxine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Parathyroid hormone is the correct answer. It regulates calcium and phosphate levels in the blood by increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and releasing calcium from bones. Insulin is involved in glucose metabolism, not calcium and phosphate regulation. Cortisol is a stress hormone and is not primarily responsible for regulating calcium and phosphate levels. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone that primarily regulates metabolism, not calcium and phosphate in the blood.

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