Nursing Elites

1. A client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax is concerned about the continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What should the nurse explain to the client?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak.
• B. Continuous bubbling is normal and expected with a chest tube.
• C. Bubbling will stop when the lung has fully expanded.
• D. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube system indicates an air leak. An air leak can prevent the lung from fully re-expanding and may lead to complications like a recurrent pneumothorax. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate and address the air leak promptly. Choices B and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling is not normal and does not indicate lung expansion. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should first assess and then report the issue to the healthcare provider.

2. An older postoperative client has the nursing diagnosis 'impaired mobility related to fear of falling.' Which desired outcome best directs the PN's actions for the client?

• A. The client will ambulate with assistance every 4 hours
• B. The physical therapist will instruct the client in the use of a walker
• C. The client will use self-affirmation statements to decrease fear
• D. The PN will place a gait belt on the client prior to ambulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using self-affirmation statements helps the client reduce fear and regain confidence in mobility, which is essential for improving impaired mobility. Choice A focuses more on the frequency of ambulation rather than addressing the fear of falling. Choice B involves the physical therapist and the use of a walker, which may not directly address the client's fear. Choice D is a safety measure but does not specifically target the client's fear of falling.

3. A client post-mastectomy is concerned about the risk of lymphedema. What should the nurse include in the discharge instructions to minimize this risk?

• A. Wear compression garments on the affected arm.
• B. Avoid venipunctures and blood pressure measurements on the affected arm.
• C. Perform vigorous exercises to strengthen the affected arm.
• D. Keep the affected arm elevated at all times.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To minimize the risk of lymphedema after a mastectomy, it is essential to instruct the client to avoid venipunctures and blood pressure measurements on the affected arm. These procedures can lead to trauma or impede lymphatic flow, increasing the risk of lymphedema. Wearing compression garments helps manage lymphedema but is not preventive. Performing vigorous exercises can strain the affected arm and increase the risk of lymphedema. Keeping the affected arm elevated at all times is unnecessary and not an effective preventive measure against lymphedema.

4. When assisting an older male client recovering from a stroke to ambulate with a cane, where should the nurse place the cane in relation to the client's body?

• A. In front of the body to lean on while stepping forward
• B. On the opposite side of the affected extremity
• C. Approximately one foot away from the body to stabilize balance
• D. On the same side as the affected extremity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'On the opposite side of the affected extremity.' Placing the cane on the opposite side of the affected extremity provides maximum support and stability during ambulation for a client recovering from a stroke. This positioning helps to offload weight from the affected side and improves balance. Choice A is incorrect because placing the cane in front of the body can lead to incorrect weight distribution and instability. Choice C is incorrect as placing the cane one foot away from the body may not provide adequate support and can compromise balance. Choice D is incorrect as placing the cane on the same side as the affected extremity does not offer the necessary balance and support needed for safe ambulation.

5. A homeless male client with a history of alcohol abuse had a CVA 10 years ago that resulted in left hemiparesis. Today he is brought to the clinic reporting pain in his left leg. He is afebrile, has 4+ pitting edema in the lower left leg, and has minimal swelling of the right leg. Which action should the PN implement first?

• A. Obtain a blood alcohol test
• B. Inspect legs for infection or trauma
• C. Complete a mental status exam
• D. Inquire about dietary salt intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inspecting the legs for infection or trauma is the priority to assess the cause of the pain and edema, which could indicate deep vein thrombosis or cellulitis. Checking for signs of infection or trauma is crucial in this scenario to rule out potentially serious conditions. Obtaining a blood alcohol test, completing a mental status exam, or inquiring about dietary salt intake can be considered after addressing the immediate concern of identifying any infection or trauma in the leg.

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