HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023
1. The healthcare professional is caring for a patient with a new order for an oral laxative. Which is a contraindication in administering an oral laxative?
- A. Cardiac problems
- B. Abdominal pain of unknown origin
- C. Several hemorrhoids
- D. Chronic constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering an oral laxative to a patient with abdominal pain of unknown origin is contraindicated because it could be a sign of a more serious underlying condition that needs immediate medical evaluation. Giving a laxative in such a situation without proper diagnosis could potentially worsen the patient's condition or delay appropriate treatment. Choice A (Cardiac problems) is not a contraindication for an oral laxative unless the patient has a specific cardiac condition that interacts with the laxative. Choice C (Several hemorrhoids) and Choice D (Chronic constipation) are not contraindications for administering an oral laxative.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing the effectiveness of the drug amiodarone. Which client statement best indicates that the drug has been effective?
- A. I have not had as many spells of angina.
- B. I have not had as much swelling in my ankles lately.
- C. My doctor told me my cholesterol levels were improving with each visit.
- D. I do not notice as many irregular heartbeats as before I started taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is option D. The effectiveness of amiodarone is best assessed by a reduction in irregular heartbeats since it is primarily used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias. This drug's main purpose is to control irregular heart rhythms, so a decrease in irregular heartbeats indicates its effectiveness. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because amiodarone is not primarily used to address angina, ankle swelling, or cholesterol levels, so improvements in these areas do not directly reflect the drug's effectiveness.
3. A client with pulmonary tuberculosis has been taking rifampin for 3 weeks. The client reports orange urine. What should be the nurse's next action?
- A. Notify the client's health care provider.
- B. Inform the client that this is not harmful.
- C. Assess the client for other signs of nephrotoxicity.
- D. Monitor the client's most recent creatinine level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client reports orange urine after taking rifampin is to inform the client that this change is not harmful. Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of urine, which is a harmless side effect. There is no need to notify the health care provider as this is an expected outcome. Monitoring creatinine levels or assessing for nephrotoxicity is unnecessary in this situation, as rifampin does not typically cause kidney damage.
4. The healthcare provider notes that a client has a new prescription for 20 mEq of potassium. The IV site is inflamed but not tender, and has a blood flashback. What action should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Obtain a liter of normal saline with 20 mEq of KCl
- B. Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the prescription
- C. Withhold the prescription medication until a new IV is started
- D. Fax the prescription to the pharmacy for immediate dispensing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The healthcare provider should contact the prescriber to clarify the prescription because an inflamed IV site may indicate potential issues with administering the medication. It is important to ensure that the prescription is appropriate and safe for the client before proceeding with administration. Option A is incorrect because administering potassium through an inflamed IV site can lead to further complications. Option C is not the best course of action as clarifying the prescription first is essential. Option D is also incorrect as the focus should be on ensuring the safety of the client before dispensing the medication.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?
- A. Elevated blood pressure
- B. Bruising
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access