HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. While a client is receiving the medication haloperidol, which client data would indicate to the practical nurse that the medication is therapeutic?
- A. The client has maintained consistent weight loss of 2 pounds per week.
- B. The client has demonstrated a decrease in paranoid behaviors.
- C. The client's blood pressure has remained within normal limits.
- D. The client's fasting blood glucose has remained below 120 mg/dL.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is taking haloperidol, a therapeutic response involves a decrease in symptoms such as paranoia, hallucinations, delusions, and emotional excitement. These improvements indicate that the medication is effectively managing the client's condition. Monitoring for a reduction in paranoid behaviors helps the practical nurse assess the medication's effectiveness in addressing the client's psychiatric symptoms.
2. Prior to administration of the initial dose of the GI agent misoprostol, which information should the nurse obtain from the client?
- A. Taking an anti-emetic medication
- B. History of glaucoma
- C. Currently pregnant
- D. Allergy to aspirin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is crucial for the nurse to obtain information regarding the client's pregnancy status before administering misoprostol, as this medication is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential to cause uterine contractions. This can lead to serious complications such as miscarriage or premature birth. Therefore, assessing whether the client is currently pregnant is essential to ensure the safe administration of misoprostol. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the administration of misoprostol. While knowing if the client is taking an anti-emetic medication may be relevant to prevent drug interactions, a history of glaucoma and allergy to aspirin are not primary concerns before administering misoprostol.
3. Which assessment finding requires nursing intervention prior to the administration of medication?
- A. Apical pulse heard best at the pulmonic site
- B. Irregular apical pulse rhythm
- C. Presence of a systolic heart murmur
- D. Apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute indicates bradycardia, a heart rate below the normal range, which requires immediate nursing intervention before administering medication to address the potential impact of the bradycardia on the patient's overall condition.
4. The practical nurse administered 15 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously to a client before they consumed their breakfast at 7:30 AM. At what time is the client at an increased risk for a hypoglycemic reaction?
- A. 8:30 to 11:30 AM
- B. 3:30 to 7:30 PM
- C. 9:30 PM to midnight
- D. 1:00 to 5:00 AM
Correct answer: B
Rationale: NPH insulin, an intermediate-acting type, peaks approximately 8 to 12 hours after subcutaneous administration. Considering this, the client is most likely to experience a hypoglycemic reaction between 3:30 and 7:30 PM, making option B the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they fall outside the peak time for a hypoglycemic reaction after administering NPH insulin.
5. In the emergency department, a child is admitted for accidental ingestion of a poison. The practical nurse (PN) should know that inducing vomiting is recommended for which child?
- A. An 8-month-old who ingested four to six ibuprofen tablets
- B. A 3-year-old who drank an unknown amount of charcoal lighter fluid
- C. A 16-month-old who ingested 2 ounces of acetaminophen elixir
- D. A 2-year-old who ate a handful of automatic dishwasher detergent
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inducing emesis is recommended for the child who ingested a large dose of acetaminophen elixir because this medication is hepatotoxic. Acetaminophen overdose can lead to severe liver damage, and prompt removal from the stomach can help reduce absorption and potential harm.
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