Nursing Elites

1. While a client is receiving the medication haloperidol, which client data would indicate to the practical nurse that the medication is therapeutic?

• A. The client has maintained consistent weight loss of 2 pounds per week.
• B. The client has demonstrated a decrease in paranoid behaviors.
• C. The client's blood pressure has remained within normal limits.
• D. The client's fasting blood glucose has remained below 120 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is taking haloperidol, a therapeutic response involves a decrease in symptoms such as paranoia, hallucinations, delusions, and emotional excitement. These improvements indicate that the medication is effectively managing the client's condition. Monitoring for a reduction in paranoid behaviors helps the practical nurse assess the medication's effectiveness in addressing the client's psychiatric symptoms.

2. A client is prescribed metoprolol. The nurse should monitor for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Fatigue
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dizziness. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to dizziness as a common side effect due to its mechanism of action in reducing heart rate and blood pressure. This effect can cause a sensation of lightheadedness or unsteadiness, particularly when standing up quickly. While fatigue, orthostatic hypotension, and headache are potential side effects of metoprolol, dizziness is commonly observed and should be closely monitored by the nurse to ensure patient safety.

3. The patient is prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) orally. What should the nurse consider about administering this drug?

• A. Administer the drug with the first bite of food
• B. Administer the drug immediately after meals
• C. Administer the drug 30 minutes after meals
• D. Administer the drug 30 minutes before meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cimetidine is best absorbed when taken 30 minutes before meals to decrease stomach acid. Administering it before meals allows for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering cimetidine with food, immediately after meals, or 30 minutes after meals may not provide the best conditions for absorption. Taking it before meals ensures that the drug is absorbed properly and can exert its intended effects.

4. A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium. Which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth and increased thirst
• C. Tremors and polyuria
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client taking lithium, dry mouth and increased thirst are indicators of potential adverse effects. Lithium can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, causing polyuria and subsequent increased thirst due to impaired water reabsorption in the kidneys. Tremors can also be a sign of lithium toxicity. Monitoring and recognizing these symptoms are crucial in managing lithium therapy and preventing further complications.

5. A client with hypertension is prescribed valsartan. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that can cause hypotension as a side effect by dilating blood vessels. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent complications related to low blood pressure. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect because valsartan typically does not cause an increase in heart rate. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect of valsartan. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is also unlikely with valsartan use.

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