HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. While a client is receiving the medication haloperidol, which client data would indicate to the practical nurse that the medication is therapeutic?
- A. The client has maintained consistent weight loss of 2 pounds per week.
- B. The client has demonstrated a decrease in paranoid behaviors.
- C. The client's blood pressure has remained within normal limits.
- D. The client's fasting blood glucose has remained below 120 mg/dL.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is taking haloperidol, a therapeutic response involves a decrease in symptoms such as paranoia, hallucinations, delusions, and emotional excitement. These improvements indicate that the medication is effectively managing the client's condition. Monitoring for a reduction in paranoid behaviors helps the practical nurse assess the medication's effectiveness in addressing the client's psychiatric symptoms.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed liraglutide. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Administer this medication once a week.
- B. Administer this medication once a month.
- C. Administer this medication twice a day.
- D. Administer this medication once a day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer liraglutide once a day. Liraglutide is typically prescribed to be taken once daily, as directed by the healthcare provider. This dosing schedule helps maintain consistent levels of the medication in the body to effectively manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes mellitus type 2. Option A, administering once a week, is incorrect as it would not provide consistent control of blood sugar levels. Option B, administering once a month, is also incorrect as it is not the recommended dosing frequency for liraglutide. Option C, administering twice a day, is inaccurate as liraglutide is not typically dosed in this manner. It is important for the nurse to emphasize the importance of adherence to the prescribed dosing regimen to achieve optimal therapeutic outcomes.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed verapamil. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Headache
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can commonly cause constipation due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, monitoring for constipation is important when a client is prescribed verapamil.
4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed sulfasalazine. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid sunlight while taking this medication.
- C. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the client's teaching plan regarding sulfasalazine is to take the medication with meals. Taking sulfasalazine with food helps to minimize gastrointestinal upset, which is a common side effect of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding sunlight is not specifically related to sulfasalazine. Choice C is important but not directly related to the administration of sulfasalazine. Choice D is incorrect because sulfasalazine should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects.
5. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, resulting in hyperkalemia. This side effect is important to monitor in clients taking spironolactone, especially those with chronic heart failure, as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications.
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