Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent client with a seizure disorder is prescribed the anticonvulsant medication carbamazepine. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider if the client develops which condition?

• A. Experiences dry mouth.
• B. Experiences dizziness.
• C. Develops a sore throat.
• D. Develops gingival hyperplasia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Develops a sore throat.' When a client on carbamazepine develops flu-like symptoms such as pallor, fatigue, sore throat, and fever, it could indicate blood dyscrasias (aplastic anemia, leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia), which are potential adverse effects of the medication. These symptoms warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, dizziness, and gingival hyperplasia are not commonly associated with carbamazepine use and do not indicate serious adverse effects that require immediate healthcare provider notification.

2. The practical nurse is assigned a client on digoxin therapy. Which finding is likely to predispose this client to developing digoxin toxicity?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypokalemia predisposes a client on digoxin to digoxin toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, bradycardia, and atrioventricular (AV) dissociation. Therefore, assessment of serum potassium levels and prompt correction of hypokalemia are crucial interventions for clients taking digoxin.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed pioglitazone. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Liver toxicity
• C. Kidney stones
• D. Bone fractures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, liver toxicity. Pioglitazone is known to cause liver toxicity, so it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's liver function while on this medication. Monitoring liver function tests can help detect any signs of liver damage early, allowing for timely intervention to prevent serious complications.

4. A client is prescribed clonidine 0.1 mg/24 hours via a transdermal patch. Which client outcome would indicate that the medication is effective?

• A. No complaints of recent episodes of angina
• B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1
• C. No complaints of new onset of nausea or vomiting
• D. Blood pressure changes from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clonidine is an antihypertensive agent that works centrally to reduce blood pressure. A significant decrease in blood pressure, such as changing from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg, indicates that the medication is effectively managing hypertension. Monitoring blood pressure levels is crucial in assessing the response to clonidine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the therapeutic effect of clonidine in managing hypertension, which is the primary goal of the medication in this scenario.

5. The practical nurse (PN) is obtaining the medical history of a client starting a new prescription for conjugated estrogens PO daily. Which medical condition is not treated by this medication?

• A. Menopausal symptoms
• B. Prostatic cancer
• C. Thromboembolic diseases
• D. Abnormal uterine bleeding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Conjugated estrogens, such as Premarin, are not used in the treatment of thromboembolic diseases. These medications are contraindicated in conditions predisposing to thromboembolic diseases due to their association with an increased risk of thromboembolism, stroke, pulmonary embolism, and myocardial infarction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because conjugated estrogens are commonly prescribed for managing menopausal symptoms, abnormal uterine bleeding, and certain hormone-responsive cancers, but not for thromboembolic diseases.

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