Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent client with a seizure disorder is prescribed the anticonvulsant medication carbamazepine. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider if the client develops which condition?

• A. Experiences dry mouth.
• B. Experiences dizziness.
• C. Develops a sore throat.
• D. Develops gingival hyperplasia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Develops a sore throat.' When a client on carbamazepine develops flu-like symptoms such as pallor, fatigue, sore throat, and fever, it could indicate blood dyscrasias (aplastic anemia, leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia), which are potential adverse effects of the medication. These symptoms warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, dizziness, and gingival hyperplasia are not commonly associated with carbamazepine use and do not indicate serious adverse effects that require immediate healthcare provider notification.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed liraglutide. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Administer this medication once a week.
• B. Administer this medication once a month.
• C. Administer this medication twice a day.
• D. Administer this medication once a day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer liraglutide once a day. Liraglutide is typically prescribed to be taken once daily, as directed by the healthcare provider. This dosing schedule helps maintain consistent levels of the medication in the body to effectively manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes mellitus type 2. Option A, administering once a week, is incorrect as it would not provide consistent control of blood sugar levels. Option B, administering once a month, is also incorrect as it is not the recommended dosing frequency for liraglutide. Option C, administering twice a day, is inaccurate as liraglutide is not typically dosed in this manner. It is important for the nurse to emphasize the importance of adherence to the prescribed dosing regimen to achieve optimal therapeutic outcomes.

3. A client who is obtunded arrives in the emergency center with a suspected drug overdose. Intravenous naloxone is given, but within a short period, the client's level of consciousness deteriorates. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Initiate a second intravenous access site
• B. Prepare to initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• C. Determine the results of the drug toxicity screen
• D. Administer an additional dose of naloxone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering an additional dose of naloxone should be the first action taken by the nurse in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. If the client's level of consciousness deteriorates after the initial dose, administering another dose can help further reverse the overdose effects and improve the client's condition. Once the additional naloxone dose is given, the nurse can then proceed to assess the client's response and consider other interventions as needed.

4. A client is prescribed phenytoin for the management of seizures. What instruction should the practical nurse provide to the client regarding this medication?

• A. Take the medication at the same time every day.
• B. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
• C. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• D. Monitor blood pressure regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the practical nurse should provide to the client regarding phenytoin is to take the medication at the same time every day. This consistency helps maintain a steady level of the medication in the bloodstream, which is crucial for effectively managing seizures. It is important for clients to adhere to their prescribed dosing schedule to optimize the therapeutic benefits of phenytoin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because discontinuing the medication without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous, there is no specific interaction between phenytoin and dairy products, and monitoring blood pressure is not a primary concern with phenytoin therapy for seizures.

5. A client is prescribed ondansetron for nausea and vomiting. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Headache
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Constipation
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Constipation. Ondansetron is known to cause constipation as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for constipation while on this medication to address any issues promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because headache, diarrhea, and increased appetite are not common adverse effects associated with ondansetron.

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