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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin lispro. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?
- A. 5-10 minutes before meals
- B. 15 minutes after meals
- C. 30 minutes before meals
- D. 1 hour after meals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered 5-10 minutes before meals. This timing helps synchronize the peak action of insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, effectively managing postprandial hyperglycemia. Choice B, administering 15 minutes after meals, is incorrect because rapid-acting insulins like lispro are meant to act quickly to cover the rise in blood glucose levels after meals. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not align with the rapid onset of action required to manage postprandial hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes mellitus type 1.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Headache
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia due to its effect on slowing down the heart rate, which can be dangerous in a client with atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because digoxin is not known to cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.
3. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed epoetin alfa. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypotension
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Epoetin alfa can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect because it stimulates increased red blood cell production. This can result in elevated blood pressure levels, requiring careful monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications. Choice B, hypotension, is incorrect because epoetin alfa is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension. Choice C, hyperglycemia, and Choice D, tachycardia, are also incorrect as they are not commonly associated with the use of epoetin alfa.
4. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Bone marrow suppression
- B. Increased risk of infection
- C. Liver toxicity
- D. Kidney stones
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone marrow suppression. Methotrexate, commonly used in rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, reducing the production of blood cells and increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia is crucial to detect bone marrow suppression early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while methotrexate can increase the risk of infection, liver toxicity, and kidney issues, the primary concern and most significant adverse effect to monitor for is bone marrow suppression due to its impact on blood cell production.
5. The healthcare provider has administered albuterol as an inhaled medication. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which possible adverse reaction?
- A. Enuresis
- B. Lethargy
- C. Depression
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator in the adrenergic category. Its actions and adverse effects are similar to adrenaline or epinephrine. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for tachycardia, which is a common adverse effect of albuterol due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors. Enuresis, or night bed-wetting, is not an adverse effect associated with albuterol. Additionally, the client should be monitored for anxiety as a potential adverse effect, not lethargy or depression, which are not typically associated with albuterol administration.
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