HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1
1. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube after thoracic surgery. What is the most important assessment related to the chest tube?
- A. Ensure continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
- B. Measure the amount of drainage every shift
- C. Keep the drainage system at the level of the chest
- D. Assess for subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important assessment related to a chest tube after thoracic surgery is to assess for subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site. Subcutaneous emphysema can indicate air leakage from the pleural space, which can lead to serious complications such as a pneumothorax. Ensuring continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber is not the most critical assessment as it is a normal finding in a chest drainage system. While measuring the amount of drainage is important to monitor the client's condition, it is not as crucial as assessing for subcutaneous emphysema. Keeping the drainage system at the level of the chest helps maintain proper function but is not the most critical assessment in this scenario.
2. A nurse is developing a care plan for a client with chronic pain. What interventions should be included to help manage pain?
- A. Administer pain medication around the clock
- B. Teach relaxation techniques
- C. Encourage physical activity
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In managing chronic pain, it is essential to employ a multi-faceted approach. Administering pain medication around the clock helps maintain consistent pain relief. Teaching relaxation techniques such as deep breathing or guided imagery can help reduce muscle tension and promote relaxation, which can alleviate pain. Encouraging physical activity, tailored to the client's abilities, can help improve overall physical functioning and reduce pain perception. Therefore, combining all these interventions (pain medication, relaxation techniques, and physical activity) provides a comprehensive approach to pain management, addressing different aspects of the client's experience with chronic pain. This holistic approach is more effective than using a single intervention alone, making 'All of the above' the correct choice.
3. After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse’s immediate intervention? The client who is...
- A. Short of breath after a shower and has a hemoglobin of 8 grams
- B. Bleeding from a finger stick and has a prothrombin time of 30 seconds
- C. Febrile and has a WBC count of 14,000/mm3
- D. Trembling and has a glucose level of 50 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.
4. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
- B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
- C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
- D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.
5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which intervention is a priority during the acute phase?
- A. Administer morphine for pain relief
- B. Encourage the client to perform isometric exercises
- C. Position the client flat in bed
- D. Restrict fluid intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the acute phase of a myocardial infarction (MI), the priority intervention is to administer morphine for pain relief. Morphine not only alleviates pain but also reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which is crucial in the management of MI. Encouraging the client to perform isometric exercises (choice B) can increase myocardial oxygen demand and should be avoided during the acute phase. Positioning the client flat in bed (choice C) may worsen symptoms by increasing venous return and workload on the heart. Restricting fluid intake (choice D) is not a priority intervention during the acute phase of MI; maintaining adequate hydration is important for organ perfusion.
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