Nursing Elites

1. During the shift change report at an acute care hospital, the charge nurse assigns the Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) to care for a client. Which task is within the LPN's scope?

• A. Administering IV medication
• B. Conducting initial client assessments
• C. Providing wound care for a stage III pressure ulcer
• D. Teaching a diabetic client about insulin administration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. LPNs are trained to provide basic nursing care such as wound care. Providing wound care for a stage III pressure ulcer falls within the LPN's scope of practice. Administering IV medication (choice A) requires a higher level of skill and is usually the responsibility of registered nurses. Conducting initial client assessments (choice B) demands more advanced training and is typically performed by registered nurses. Teaching a diabetic client about insulin administration (choice D) involves patient education and is usually within the scope of registered nurses or other healthcare professionals with specific training in diabetic care.

2. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

• A. Elevated AST and ALT levels
• B. Decreased albumin level
• C. Elevated bilirubin level
• D. Prolonged PT/INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This finding indicates impaired liver function affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT levels (Choice A) indicate liver cell damage but do not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding. A decreased albumin level (Choice B) is common in liver disease but is not the most concerning in terms of bleeding risk. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are seen in liver disease but do not directly reflect the risk of bleeding as PT/INR values do.

4. What is the most important action to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs) in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter?

• A. Irrigate the catheter daily.
• B. Change the catheter every 72 hours.
• C. Apply antibiotic ointment at the insertion site.
• D. Ensure the catheter bag is always below bladder level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial action to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs) in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to ensure that the catheter bag is always below bladder level. This positioning helps prevent backflow of urine, reducing the risk of CAUTIs. Irrigating the catheter daily (Choice A) is unnecessary and can introduce pathogens. Changing the catheter every 72 hours (Choice B) is not recommended unless clinically indicated to prevent introducing new pathogens. Applying antibiotic ointment at the insertion site (Choice C) is not the most important action to prevent CAUTIs; proper hygiene and maintaining a closed system are more critical.

5. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Avoid foods high in sodium
• C. Monitor fluid intake and adjust as needed
• D. Take the medication in the morning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss as a side effect. By increasing potassium-rich foods, the client can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy. Choice B is incorrect because while limiting sodium intake is generally advisable for heart failure, it is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice C is incorrect because fluid intake should be monitored and adjusted based on the individual's condition, but setting a specific limit of 1 liter per day is not a standard recommendation. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to increased urination during the night.

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