Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Hourly urine output
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
• D. Temperature every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.

2. During auscultation of the anterior chest wall of a client newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit, what type of breath sounds should a nurse expect to hear?

• A. Normal breath sounds
• B. Adventitious breath sounds
• C. Absent breath sounds
• D. Diminished breath sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During auscultation of the chest, normal breath sounds are the expected findings in a client who is newly admitted without respiratory complaints. Normal breath sounds indicate proper airflow through the airways without any abnormalities. Adventitious breath sounds (Choice B) refer to abnormal lung sounds such as crackles or wheezes, which are indicative of underlying respiratory issues. Absent breath sounds (Choice C) suggest a lack of airflow to a particular lung area, which could be due to conditions like pneumothorax. Diminished breath sounds (Choice D) indicate reduced airflow or consolidation in a specific lung region, often seen in conditions like pleural effusion or pneumonia. Therefore, in a newly admitted client without respiratory complaints, the nurse should expect to hear normal breath sounds during auscultation.

3. During a health assessment, a client who takes herbal supplements makes a statement indicating an understanding of their use. Which statement is most indicative of this understanding?

• A. I use garlic for my menopausal symptoms.
• B. I use ginger when I get car sick.
• C. I take ginkgo biloba for headaches.
• D. I take echinacea to control cholesterol.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because ginkgo biloba is commonly used to help with headaches, among other benefits. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because garlic is not typically used for menopausal symptoms, ginger is mainly used for nausea and vomiting (not car sickness specifically), and echinacea is not known to control cholesterol.

4. During a family assessment, a nurse is interviewing a family composed of a husband, a wife, and three children. One child is biological from this marriage, and the other two are from the wife’s previous marriage. How should the nurse identify this family form?

• A. Extended
• B. Blended
• C. Nuclear
• D. Alternative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Blended.' This family is considered a blended family because it consists of children from previous marriages, along with the biological child of the current marriage. Choice A ('Extended') refers to a family that includes relatives beyond the nuclear family, such as grandparents or aunts/uncles. Choice C ('Nuclear') typically consists of a husband, wife, and their biological children only. Choice D ('Alternative') does not accurately describe the family structure presented in the scenario.

5. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Morphine sulfate
• C. Meperidine (Demerol)
• D. Promethazine (Phenergan)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

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