the nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin coumadin therapy which laboratory test should th
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions

1. The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.

2. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential complications related to high potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium is essential for clients taking spironolactone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly impact serum calcium, sodium, or glucose levels significantly. While these values may be monitored for other reasons in a client with heart failure, they are not the primary focus of monitoring when spironolactone is prescribed.

3. A client diagnosed with hypertension is prescribed atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that works by lowering blood pressure. A common side effect of atenolol is hypotension, where blood pressure drops too low. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypotension to prevent any complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tachycardia (fast heart rate), dry mouth, and increased appetite are not common side effects of atenolol. Hypotension is the expected side effect due to the medication's mechanism of action.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is being discharged on a low-sodium diet. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because bacon and sausage are high in sodium, which contradicts the low-sodium diet requirement. Consuming them freely would contribute to increased sodium intake, which is not suitable for managing hypertension. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate appropriate understanding and actions for a low-sodium diet, such as using alternatives to salt, avoiding processed foods, and checking food labels for sodium content.

5. When providing teaching to a client with a new prescription for atorvastatin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for atorvastatin is to take the medication in the evening. Atorvastatin is more effective when taken at night because cholesterol synthesis is higher during this time. This timing helps optimize the drug's cholesterol-lowering effects and enhances its overall efficacy in managing lipid levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Taking atorvastatin with food can decrease its absorption, grapefruit juice can interact with atorvastatin leading to increased side effects, and there is no specific need to avoid dairy products while on atorvastatin unless instructed otherwise by the healthcare provider.

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