the nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin coumadin therapy which laboratory test should th
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions

1. The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.

2. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with heart failure who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign of digoxin toxicity should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin can cause decreased heart rate. Therefore, monitoring the client for signs of bradycardia is crucial. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hypertension is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity; instead, hypotension may occur. Hyperglycemia is not a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Insomnia is also not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity; instead, some patients may experience visual disturbances, confusion, or other neurological symptoms.

3. Prior to a dipyridamole thallium scan, what substance should the LPN/LVN ensure the client has not consumed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Caffeine should be avoided before a dipyridamole thallium scan as it can interfere with the test results. Caffeine is a stimulant that can affect the heart rate and may lead to inaccurate findings during the scan. Fatty meals, excess sugar, and milk products do not specifically interfere with the dipyridamole thallium scan procedure. Therefore, it is essential for the LPN/LVN to check and ensure that the client has not consumed caffeine prior to the procedure to obtain accurate diagnostic results.

4. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with chronic stable angina. Which symptom would indicate that the client's condition is worsening?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased shortness of breath with exertion is a concerning symptom in a client with chronic stable angina as it may indicate inadequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle, suggesting a worsening condition. This could be a sign of reduced blood flow to the heart, leading to increased work for the heart during exertion, resulting in increased shortness of breath. Choice B, improved tolerance to activity, is incorrect as it would indicate a positive response to treatment. Choice C, decreased frequency of chest pain, is incorrect as it would also suggest an improvement in the client's condition. Choice D, stable blood pressure readings, are not indicative of a worsening condition in chronic stable angina.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tremors. Tremors are a sign of lithium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Increased urination is a common side effect of lithium but not an urgent concern requiring immediate reporting. Weight gain is also a common side effect of lithium but does not indicate toxicity. Blurred vision is not typically associated with lithium toxicity; therefore, it is not the priority finding to report.

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