ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. While assessing a client taking propranolol, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Constipation
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is a significant side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker that slows the heart rate. It indicates potential cardiovascular complications and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Dry mouth, constipation, and increased appetite are common side effects of various medications but are not directly associated with propranolol's mechanism of action.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for that indicates toxicity?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Constipation
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Tremors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should monitor the client for an increased heart rate, as it can indicate a dangerous level of theophylline in the body. Prompt medical attention is required if tachycardia is observed to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, drowsiness, and tremors are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. While theophylline can cause gastrointestinal upset or central nervous system effects, tachycardia is a more specific and serious indicator of toxicity that requires immediate attention.
3. A client diagnosed with hypertension is prescribed atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Hypotension
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that works by lowering blood pressure. A common side effect of atenolol is hypotension, where blood pressure drops too low. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypotension to prevent any complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tachycardia (fast heart rate), dry mouth, and increased appetite are not common side effects of atenolol. Hypotension is the expected side effect due to the medication's mechanism of action.
4. A client is admitted to the hospital with a venous stasis leg ulcer. The nurse inspects the ulcer expecting to note which observation?
- A. The ulcer has a pale-colored base.
- B. The ulcer is deep, with even edges.
- C. The ulcer has little granulation tissue.
- D. The ulcer has a brownish or 'brawny' appearance.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When assessing a venous stasis leg ulcer, the nurse should expect to note a brownish or 'brawny' appearance. This discoloration is often due to hemosiderin deposits. The correct answer is not A because venous stasis ulcers typically do not have a pale-colored base. Choice B is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers usually have irregular, shallow edges, not deep and even edges. Choice C is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers often have excess granulation tissue, not little granulation tissue. Recognizing the brownish or 'brawny' appearance is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of venous stasis leg ulcers.
5. The client has angina pectoris and is prescribed nitroglycerin patches. What instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Apply the patch to the chest and leave it in place for 24 hours
- B. Apply the patch to a different site each time to prevent skin irritation
- C. Remove the patch before going to bed to prevent tolerance
- D. Cut the patch in half if experiencing headaches
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide to the client is to apply the nitroglycerin patch to a different site each time to prevent skin irritation. Rotating the application site is crucial to prevent skin irritation and ensure consistent absorption of the medication. Applying the patch to the same site can lead to skin irritation and decreased effectiveness. Removing the patch before going to bed is not necessary, as the patch can typically be worn for a specific duration. Cutting the patch in half if experiencing headaches is not recommended and can alter the dose of the medication.
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