a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for verapamil which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Questions

1. A client has a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their heart rate daily when taking verapamil. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia, making it crucial to monitor the heart rate regularly to detect any changes promptly. Choice B, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically related to verapamil administration. Choice C, avoiding grapefruit juice, is more relevant to medications metabolized by CYP3A4 enzymes, not verapamil. Choice D, taking the medication with food, is not a specific instruction for verapamil, as it can be taken with or without food.

2. The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client with coronary artery disease who is prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. The nurse should advise the client to choose which food item?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal with fresh fruit is a suitable choice for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-cholesterol diet as it is low in cholesterol and provides heart-healthy benefits. Eggs and bacon, cream of chicken soup, and grilled cheese sandwich are higher in cholesterol and may not be as heart-healthy for this client. Eggs and bacon are high in cholesterol, cream of chicken soup may contain saturated fats, and a grilled cheese sandwich typically contains high amounts of fat and cholesterol, making them less suitable choices for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-cholesterol diet.

3. While assessing a client taking propranolol, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a significant side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker that slows the heart rate. It indicates potential cardiovascular complications and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Dry mouth, constipation, and increased appetite are common side effects of various medications but are not directly associated with propranolol's mechanism of action.

4. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is on oxygen therapy. Which action should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For clients with COPD, too much oxygen can suppress their drive to breathe, leading to hypoventilation. Therefore, the nurse should maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia to prevent complications while ensuring adequate oxygenation. Setting the oxygen flow rate too high (Choice A) can be detrimental for the client with COPD. Removing oxygen while the client is eating (Choice B) can compromise oxygenation, which is essential even during meals. While nasal cannulas are commonly used, the choice of oxygen delivery device depends on the client's needs; there may be situations where a face mask (Choice C) is more appropriate.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the client’s identity using two identifiers is a critical patient safety measure to ensure the correct patient receives the blood transfusion. This process involves checking the patient's identity using at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number, to prevent administration errors. Priming the blood tubing with normal saline is necessary to ensure there are no air bubbles in the tubing, but it is not the immediate action required before administering the blood. Infusing packed red blood cells over 30 minutes is generally too rapid and can lead to adverse reactions; a slower rate is recommended for safe administration. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion is not frequent enough to monitor the client adequately for potential transfusion reactions or complications; vital signs should be monitored more frequently, especially during the initial phase of the transfusion.

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