Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old client in congestive heart failure. Which finding suggests that digitalis levels should be reviewed?

• A. Extreme fatigue
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Intense itching
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Extreme fatigue can be a sign of digitalis toxicity, especially in older adults, and warrants a review of the client's medication levels and potential adjustment. Increased appetite, intense itching, and constipation are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity and do not directly indicate a need for a review of digitalis levels.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving insulin glargine (Lantus). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin used to control blood sugar levels in diabetes. The nurse should monitor the client for hypoglycemia, which is a potential side effect of insulin therapy. Hypoglycemia occurs when blood sugar levels drop too low, leading to symptoms such as shakiness, dizziness, sweating, confusion, and in severe cases, loss of consciousness. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is an elevated potassium level, not typically associated with insulin glargine. Hypertension (choice C) is high blood pressure, which is not a common side effect of insulin glargine. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not related to the use of insulin glargine.

3. A 6-month-old infant who is being treated for developmental dysplasia of the hip has been placed in a hip spica cast. The nurse should teach the parents to

• A. Gently rub the skin with a cotton swab to relieve itching
• B. Place the favorite books and push-pull toys in the crib
• C. Check every few hours for the next day or 2 for swelling in the baby's feet
• D. Turn the baby with the abduction stabilizer bar every 2 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check every few hours for the next day or 2 for swelling in the baby's feet. Swelling in the baby's feet could indicate compromised circulation due to the cast, and frequent checks are necessary to ensure that there are no complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because rubbing the skin with a cotton swab, placing favorite items in the crib, and turning the baby with the abduction stabilizer bar do not address the potential issue of compromised circulation and swelling in the baby's feet.

4. Which individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia?

• A. A 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children.
• B. A 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing.
• C. A 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes.
• D. A 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors such as homelessness, alcoholism, and smoking, which weaken the immune system and make them more susceptible to respiratory infections. Choice A is incorrect as working with underprivileged children, while potentially exposing the individual to various illnesses, does not directly increase the risk of pneumonia. Choice B is less likely as exercise-induced wheezing may suggest asthma but does not directly correlate with pneumonia risk. Choice D, an aerobics instructor who eats only vegetables and skips meals, does not have the same level of risk factors for pneumonia as the homeless person in choice C.

5. An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:

• A. Screening for breast cancer in women who have no symptoms
• B. Using pain control medications for terminal cancer patients
• C. Educating teenagers about using condoms to prevent STDs
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.

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