Nursing Elites

1. As a client who is terminally ill has been receiving high doses of an opioid analgesic for the past month and becomes unresponsive to verbal stimuli as death approaches, what orders would the nurse expect from the healthcare provider?

• A. Decrease the analgesic dosage by half
• B. Discontinue the analgesic
• C. Continue the same analgesic dosage
• D. Prescribe a less potent drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuing the same dosage of analgesic is appropriate to manage pain effectively as death nears and the client becomes unresponsive. The primary goal of palliative care in end-of-life situations is to ensure comfort, regardless of the client's level of consciousness. Decreasing the analgesic dosage or discontinuing it could lead to inadequate pain relief, which goes against the principles of palliative care. Prescribing a less potent drug may also compromise pain management in this critical stage. Therefore, maintaining the same analgesic dosage is the most appropriate action to provide comfort and alleviate suffering.

2. Which of these clients would the triage nurse request the healthcare provider to examine immediately?

• A. A 5-month-old infant with audible wheezing and grunting
• B. An adolescent with soot on the face and shirt
• C. A middle-aged man with second-degree burns on the right hand
• D. A toddler with singed ends of long hair extending to the waist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Audible wheezing and grunting in an infant indicate respiratory distress, which is a critical condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent evaluation. Soot on the face and shirt, second-degree burns on the hand, and singed hair, while concerning, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to respiratory distress in an infant.

3. The Healthy People project is designed to:

• A. track health care trends to anticipate insurance liabilities, especially for poor and urban populations
• B. demonstrate that social factors have a significant impact on individual and community health
• C. follow health indicators such as activity, substance use, mental health, and environmental issues
• D. demonstrate that access to health care in the United States is adequate for all populations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Healthy People project is designed to follow health indicators such as activity, substance use, mental health, and environmental issues to improve public health outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because the project focuses on public health indicators rather than insurance liabilities. Choice B is incorrect as the project actually acknowledges the significant impact of social factors on health. Choice D is incorrect because one of the main goals of the Healthy People project is to identify and address disparities in access to healthcare, not to demonstrate that access is adequate for all populations.

4. At a nursing staff meeting, there is a discussion of perceived inequities in weekend staff assignments. As a follow-up, what should the nurse manager do initially?

• A. Allow the staff to change assignments
• B. Clarify reasons for current assignments
• C. Help staff see the complexity of issues
• D. Facilitate creative thinking on staffing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Facilitating creative thinking on staffing is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse manager in addressing perceived inequities in weekend staff assignments. By encouraging creative thinking, the manager promotes innovative solutions and fosters a sense of ownership and collaboration among staff members. Choices A, B, and C are not the best initial steps in this situation. Allowing staff to change assignments may not address the underlying issues, clarifying reasons for current assignments may not resolve perceived inequities, and helping staff see the complexity of issues may not lead to actionable solutions.

5. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following lab values would be consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Low serum albumin
• B. High serum cholesterol
• C. Abnormally low white blood cell count
• D. Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK). Elevated CPK levels indicate muscle damage, including damage to the cardiac muscle, which aligns with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Choice A, low serum albumin, is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Choice B, high serum cholesterol, is more associated with conditions like atherosclerosis rather than acute myocardial infarction. Choice C, abnormally low white blood cell count, is typically not a lab value associated with myocardial infarction; instead, it could suggest other conditions like infections or bone marrow issues.

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