Nursing Elites

1. As a client who is terminally ill has been receiving high doses of an opioid analgesic for the past month and becomes unresponsive to verbal stimuli as death approaches, what orders would the nurse expect from the healthcare provider?

• A. Decrease the analgesic dosage by half
• B. Discontinue the analgesic
• C. Continue the same analgesic dosage
• D. Prescribe a less potent drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuing the same dosage of analgesic is appropriate to manage pain effectively as death nears and the client becomes unresponsive. The primary goal of palliative care in end-of-life situations is to ensure comfort, regardless of the client's level of consciousness. Decreasing the analgesic dosage or discontinuing it could lead to inadequate pain relief, which goes against the principles of palliative care. Prescribing a less potent drug may also compromise pain management in this critical stage. Therefore, maintaining the same analgesic dosage is the most appropriate action to provide comfort and alleviate suffering.

2. When the Public Health Nurse assesses needs and plans health interventions for a group of people in coordination with other health professionals, they are demonstrating which of the following features of community health nursing:

• A. CHN involves interdisciplinary collaboration
• B. The use of an epidemiologic approach is an essential part of nursing practice
• C. CHN is oriented towards populations
• D. CHN encourages the client's participation in determining their own health

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Interdisciplinary collaboration is a fundamental feature of community health nursing. In this scenario, the nurse works with other health professionals to assess needs and plan interventions for a group of people, emphasizing the importance of teamwork and cooperation. Choice B is incorrect because while epidemiology plays a role in community health nursing, it is not the primary focus of this particular situation. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the population-focused nature of community health nursing, which is related but not directly demonstrated in the given scenario. Choice D is incorrect because while client participation is essential in community health nursing, it is not the primary feature demonstrated in the scenario provided.

3. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to being battered. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves identifying and addressing issues early to prevent further harm. In this scenario, the nurse is intervening by discussing domestic violence prevention with the client who is showing signs of facial bruising, aiming to prevent further harm even though the client has not disclosed being battered. Choice A (primary prevention) focuses on preventing the onset of a problem before it occurs, like educating about healthy relationships before violence happens. Choice C (tertiary prevention) involves managing and treating the effects of a problem that has already occurred, such as providing counseling to a domestic violence survivor. Choice D (health promotion) aims to enhance well-being and prevent health problems through educational and environmental interventions, which may include aspects of preventing domestic violence, but in this case, the nurse's direct intervention is more about early identification and prevention of harm, aligning it with secondary prevention.

4. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Jaundice evident at 26 hours
• B. Hematocrit of 55%
• C. Serum bilirubin of 12 mg/dL
• D. Positive Coombs test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

5. The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old client in congestive heart failure. Which finding suggests that digitalis levels should be reviewed?

• A. Extreme fatigue
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Intense itching
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Extreme fatigue can be a sign of digitalis toxicity, especially in older adults, and warrants a review of the client's medication levels and potential adjustment. Increased appetite, intense itching, and constipation are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity and do not directly indicate a need for a review of digitalis levels.

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