Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is admitting a child with a Wilms tumor. Which is the initial assessment finding associated with this tumor?

• A. abdominal swelling
• B. weight gain
• C. hypotension
• D. increased urinary output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abdominal swelling is a classic presentation and often the first noticeable sign of a Wilms tumor. This occurs due to the tumor mass in the kidney, leading to abdominal distension. Weight gain (Choice B) is less likely as a presenting symptom compared to abdominal swelling. Hypotension (Choice C) is not typically associated with a Wilms tumor unless complications like bleeding or shock occur. Increased urinary output (Choice D) is not a typical finding for Wilms tumor; instead, patients may present with hematuria or urinary symptoms.

2. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

3. A child has been diagnosed with classic hemophilia. A nurse teaches the child’s parents how to administer the plasma component factor VIII through a venous port. It is to be given 3 times a week. What should the nurse tell them about when to administer this therapy?

• A. Whenever a bleed is suspected
• B. In the morning on scheduled days
• C. At bedtime while the child is lying quietly in bed
• D. On a regular schedule at the parents’ convenience

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering factor VIII in the morning on scheduled days ensures that there is a consistent level of the plasma component throughout the day, especially when the child is active. This timing helps to maintain adequate levels of factor VIII to prevent bleeding episodes. Choice A is incorrect because administering factor VIII only when a bleed is suspected would not provide the consistent prophylactic coverage needed for children with hemophilia. Choice C is incorrect as bedtime administration may not be practical for ensuring the plasma component is available during the child's active hours. Choice D is incorrect because administering factor VIII on a regular schedule, rather than at specific times of the day, may not optimize its effectiveness in preventing bleeding episodes.

4. What should the nurse include when teaching an adolescent about tinea pedis?

• A. Keep your feet moist and open to the air as much as possible.
• B. Dry the area between your toes thoroughly.
• C. Wear nylon or synthetic socks every day.
• D. Go barefoot when you are in the school locker room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct way to prevent tinea pedis is by keeping the feet dry, especially between the toes, to decrease the risk of fungal infection. Choice A is incorrect as keeping the feet moist can promote fungal growth. Choice C is incorrect because nylon or synthetic socks can trap moisture, contributing to the growth of fungi. Choice D is incorrect as going barefoot in public, especially in areas like locker rooms, increases the risk of contracting tinea pedis.

5. A newborn is diagnosed with metatarsus adductus. The parents ask the nurse how this occurred. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

• A. This condition is due to a genetic defect in the bones.
• B. It's most likely from how the baby was positioned in utero.
• C. They really don't know what causes this condition.
• D. There is probably an underlying deformity of the baby's hip.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metatarsus adductus is a condition where the front part of the foot is turned inward. It is often caused by the baby's position in the womb, leading to pressure on the foot during fetal development. Choice A is incorrect as metatarsus adductus is not primarily caused by a genetic defect in the bones. Choice C is incorrect as the cause of metatarsus adductus is known to be related to intrauterine positioning. Choice D is incorrect as metatarsus adductus specifically pertains to the foot and not the hip.

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