Nursing Elites

1. Why might a healthcare provider question a health care provider's order for a tap water enema for a 6-month-old infant with suspected Hirschsprung disease?

• A. The result could lead to loss of necessary nutrients.
• B. It could cause a fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
• C. It could increase the fear of intrusive procedures.
• D. The result could cause shock from a sudden drop in temperature.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tap water enemas can cause significant fluid and electrolyte imbalances, particularly in infants, making them unsafe for this age group. Choice A is incorrect because tap water enemas are unlikely to lead to loss of necessary nutrients. Choice C is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the physiological risk of tap water enemas. Choice D is incorrect as shock from a sudden drop in temperature is not a common concern with tap water enemas.

2. A child who had surgery for a congenital heart defect is being discharged. What is an important aspect of the discharge teaching?

• A. Teaching the parents about signs of infection
• B. Providing instructions on wound care
• C. Scheduling follow-up appointments
• D. Explaining the use of prescribed medications

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Explaining the use of prescribed medications is crucial as it helps ensure the proper management of the child's condition post-discharge. Understanding how and when to administer medications is essential for the child's recovery. While teaching the parents about signs of infection, providing wound care instructions, and scheduling follow-up appointments are also important aspects of care, ensuring the correct use of prescribed medications takes precedence to prevent complications and promote the child's well-being.

3. The nurse is caring for an infant with candidal diaper rash. Which topical agent would the nurse expect the healthcare provider to order?

• A. Corticosteroids.
• B. Antifungals.
• C. Antibiotics.
• D. Retinoids.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antifungal agents are the appropriate treatment for candidal diaper rash as it is a fungal infection. Corticosteroids, antibiotics, and retinoids are not indicated for this condition. Corticosteroids may worsen fungal infections, antibiotics are used for bacterial infections, and retinoids are typically used for acne and skin conditions unrelated to candidal diaper rash.

4. A parent calls the outpatient clinic requesting information about the appropriate dose of acetaminophen for a 16-month-old child who has signs of an upper respiratory tract infection and fever. The directions on the bottle of acetaminophen elixir are 120 mg every 4 hours when needed. At the toddler’s 15-month visit, the health care provider prescribed 150 mg. What is the nurse’s best response to the parent?

• A. “The dose is close enough, and it doesn’t really matter which one is given.”
• B. “From your description, the medications are not necessary. They should be avoided at this age.”
• C. “It is appropriate to use dosages based on age. Children typically have weights consistent for their age groups.”
• D. “The prescribed dose of the drug was based on weight, and this is a more accurate way of determining a therapeutic dose.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most accurate way to determine a therapeutic dose for children is based on their weight rather than age. Weight-based dosing helps ensure that the child receives the appropriate amount of medication for their body size, which is crucial for safety and effectiveness. Age-based dosing can lead to underdosing or overdosing, as children of the same age can have significantly different weights. Choice A is incorrect because even small variations in dosages can have significant effects on a child's health. Choice B is incorrect as acetaminophen can be appropriate when used correctly for fever management in children. Choice C is incorrect as children's weights can vary greatly within the same age group, making weight-based dosing more precise and individualized.

5. A 1-year-old child has a congenital cardiac malformation that causes right-to-left shunting of blood through the heart. What clinical finding should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Proteinuria
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Elevated hematocrit
• D. Absence of pedal pulses

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a congenital cardiac malformation causing right-to-left shunting, the nurse should expect an elevated hematocrit. This occurs because the body compensates for decreased oxygenation by producing more red blood cells. Proteinuria (Choice A) is not typically associated with congenital cardiac malformations causing right-to-left shunting. Peripheral edema (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions causing left-sided heart failure. Absence of pedal pulses (Choice D) is not a typical finding in congenital cardiac malformations causing right-to-left shunting.

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