Nursing Elites

1. Why might a healthcare provider question a health care provider's order for a tap water enema for a 6-month-old infant with suspected Hirschsprung disease?

• A. The result could lead to loss of necessary nutrients.
• B. It could cause a fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
• C. It could increase the fear of intrusive procedures.
• D. The result could cause shock from a sudden drop in temperature.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tap water enemas can cause significant fluid and electrolyte imbalances, particularly in infants, making them unsafe for this age group. Choice A is incorrect because tap water enemas are unlikely to lead to loss of necessary nutrients. Choice C is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the physiological risk of tap water enemas. Choice D is incorrect as shock from a sudden drop in temperature is not a common concern with tap water enemas.

2. When caring for a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula, what nursing care should be included?

• A. Elevating the head but giving nothing by mouth
• B. Elevating the head for feedings
• C. Feeding glucose water only
• D. Avoiding suctioning unless the infant is cyanotic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula, elevating the head but giving nothing by mouth is crucial to prevent aspiration. Placing the neonate in a semi-upright position helps reduce the risk of reflux and aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs. Elevating the head for feedings (Choice B) would still pose a risk of aspiration as the neonate may aspirate during feeding. Feeding glucose water only (Choice C) is not appropriate and does not address the risk of aspiration associated with a tracheoesophageal fistula. Avoiding suctioning unless the infant is cyanotic (Choice D) is incorrect because suctioning may be necessary for maintaining airway patency, regardless of cyanosis, in a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula.

3. The nurse is caring for an infant with candidal diaper rash. Which topical agent would the nurse expect the healthcare provider to order?

• A. Corticosteroids.
• B. Antifungals.
• C. Antibiotics.
• D. Retinoids.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antifungal agents are the appropriate treatment for candidal diaper rash as it is a fungal infection. Corticosteroids, antibiotics, and retinoids are not indicated for this condition. Corticosteroids may worsen fungal infections, antibiotics are used for bacterial infections, and retinoids are typically used for acne and skin conditions unrelated to candidal diaper rash.

4. When teaching a class about trisomy 21, the instructor would identify the cause of this disorder as:

• A. nondisjunction.
• B. X-linked recessive inheritance.
• C. genomic imprinting.
• D. autosomal dominant inheritance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: nondisjunction. Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is caused by nondisjunction, which is an error in cell division leading to an extra copy of chromosome 21. This additional genetic material alters the course of development and causes the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. X-linked recessive inheritance refers to genetic disorders carried on the X chromosome, genomic imprinting involves gene expression based on parental origin, and autosomal dominant inheritance relates to disorders caused by a dominant gene on one of the non-sex chromosomes. In the case of trisomy 21, the cause is specifically related to the error in chromosome division, making nondisjunction the most appropriate answer.

5. A 3-year-old child has a sudden onset of respiratory distress. The mother denies any recent illnesses or fever. You should suspect

• A. croup
• B. epiglottitis
• C. lower respiratory infection
• D. foreign body airway obstruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a 3-year-old child presenting with sudden respiratory distress and no history of recent illnesses or fever, foreign body airway obstruction should be suspected. Foreign body airway obstruction commonly leads to acute respiratory distress without preceding symptoms. Croup (Choice A) typically presents with a barking cough and stridor. Epiglottitis (Choice B) often presents with high fever, drooling, and a muffled voice. Lower respiratory infection (Choice C) may manifest with symptoms such as cough, fever, and respiratory distress, but the sudden onset without fever or recent illness suggests a more acute event like foreign body airway obstruction.

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