the nurse instructs the parents of a child who has had a myringotomy to place the child in which position
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI

1. The parents of a child who has had a myringotomy are instructed by the nurse to place the child in which position?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the child on the affected side after a myringotomy facilitates ear drainage. This position helps prevent accumulation of fluids in the ear canal, aiding in the healing process. Placing the child in the supine position (Choice A) or on the unaffected side (Choice C) may not be as effective in promoting drainage. The Trendelenburg's position (Choice D) with the head lower than the body is used for conditions requiring increased venous return, not for post-myringotomy care.

2. When caring for a client with nephrotic syndrome, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight is the most important assessment to monitor fluid balance in clients with nephrotic syndrome. In nephrotic syndrome, excessive protein loss leads to fluid retention and edema. Monitoring daily weight allows the nurse to assess fluid status accurately. Vital signs, while important, may not directly reflect fluid balance changes in nephrotic syndrome. Level of consciousness and bowel sounds are not typically the primary assessments for monitoring fluid balance in clients with nephrotic syndrome.

3. Which nursing diagnosis should be selected for a client who is receiving thrombolytic infusions for treatment of an acute myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy increases the risk of bleeding, not infection, fluid volume deficit, or impaired skin integrity. The most significant concern with thrombolytic therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, which can lead to various injuries. Therefore, 'Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis' is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the primary risk associated with thrombolytic therapy.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What do these symptoms indicate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are classic signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs due to a combination of hyperglycemia and ketone production. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is characterized by low blood sugar levels, leading to symptoms like confusion, shakiness, and sweating, which are different from the symptoms described in the scenario. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) (Choice C) typically presents with severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and altered mental status, rather than the triad of symptoms mentioned. Insulin shock (Choice D) refers to a severe hypoglycemic reaction due to excessive insulin, manifesting with confusion, sweating, and rapid heartbeat, not the symptoms seen in the client with diabetes mellitus described in this scenario.

5. What pathophysiologic process is producing the symptoms of gout in a client with sudden onset of big toe joint pain and swelling?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Gout is characterized by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid of joints, which triggers inflammation and pain. This process is known as crystal-induced arthritis. Choice B is incorrect as gout does not involve degeneration of joint cartilage. Choice C is incorrect as gout is not caused by an infection of the joint space. Choice D is incorrect as gout does not result from increased synovial fluid but rather from the deposition of uric acid crystals.

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