the nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel uap are providing care for a client who exhibits signs of neglect syndrome following a stroke affecting t
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024

1. The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are providing care for a client who exhibits signs of neglect syndrome following a stroke affecting the right hemisphere. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to demonstrate to the UAP how to approach the client from the client's left side. Approaching the client from the neglected side (left side) can help in retraining the brain and improving awareness of the affected side, which is crucial in the management of neglect syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as assessing the client's body for bruising is not directly related to managing neglect syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as observing the interaction between the client and family members does not address the specific intervention needed for neglect syndrome. Choice D is incorrect because protecting the client's left side when transferring to a chair does not actively involve retraining the brain and improving awareness of the neglected side, which is the primary goal in managing neglect syndrome.

2. When caring for a patient with a fresh tracheostomy, what is the nurse’s first priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensuring the tracheostomy ties are secure. This is the nurse's first priority because it is critical to prevent accidental decannulation, which could compromise the patient’s airway. Providing humidified oxygen, suctioning the tracheostomy tube, and monitoring for signs of infection are important aspects of care but ensuring the tracheostomy ties' security takes precedence to maintain the patient's airway.

3. The nurse determines that a client with cirrhosis is experiencing peripheral neuropathy. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protecting the client's feet from injury is essential when managing peripheral neuropathy in a client with cirrhosis. Peripheral neuropathy can result in reduced sensation, increasing the risk of injury. Applying a heating pad or keeping the client's feet elevated would not address the primary concern of preventing injury. Assessing the feet and legs for jaundice is important for monitoring liver function, but it is not directly related to managing peripheral neuropathy in this case.

4. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

5. A client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax is concerned about the continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What should the nurse explain to the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube system indicates an air leak. An air leak can prevent the lung from fully re-expanding and may lead to complications like a recurrent pneumothorax. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate and address the air leak promptly. Choices B and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling is not normal and does not indicate lung expansion. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should first assess and then report the issue to the healthcare provider.

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