Nursing Elites

1. The mother of a breastfeeding 24-hour old infant is very concerned about the techniques involved in breastfeeding. She calls the nurse with each feeding to seek reassurance that she is doing it right. She tells the nurse, "Now my daughter is not getting enough to eat." Which response would be best for the nurse to make?

• A. Feed your baby hourly until you feel confident that your child is receiving enough milk.
• B. Don't worry, soon your milk will come in, and you will feel how full your breasts are.
• C. Since you are so concerned, you should probably supplement breastfeeding with formula.
• D. If your baby's urine is straw-colored, she's getting enough milk.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Reassuring the mother that the baby's urine color can be an indicator of adequate hydration can help her feel more confident in her breastfeeding.

2. A prenatal educator is teaching a class about false labor. Which of the following information should the educator include?

• A. Contractions will become more intense with walking
• B. There will be dilation and effacement of the cervix
• C. There will be bloody show
• D. Contractions will become temporarily regular

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. False labor contractions, also known as Braxton Hicks contractions, are typically irregular and do not lead to cervical dilation or effacement. They are often described as sporadic and temporary, becoming temporarily regular. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because false labor contractions do not intensify with activity, do not cause cervical changes like dilation and effacement, and are not associated with the presence of a bloody show.

3. A client tells the nurse that she thinks she's pregnant. Which signs or symptoms provide the best indication that the client is pregnant?

• A. Morning sickness.
• B. Breast tenderness.
• C. Amenorrhea.
• D. Hegar's sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hegar's sign, which is a softening of the lower uterine segment, is considered a probable sign of pregnancy as it indicates changes in the cervix and uterus that occur during pregnancy. Amenorrhea, the absence of menstruation, is a common early sign of pregnancy but can also be due to other factors. Morning sickness, nausea and vomiting, can be a sign of early pregnancy but is not as specific as Hegar's sign. Breast tenderness is a common symptom in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes, but it is not as definitive as Hegar's sign in indicating pregnancy.

4. A client at 26 weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
• B. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.
• C. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test should be evaluated.
• D. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated AFP level during pregnancy can indicate potential fetal anomalies. Further evaluation is necessary to confirm the findings and assess the need for additional interventions. Scheduling a sonogram is the appropriate next step as it can provide more definitive results and help identify any underlying issues. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the elevated AFP level as a false reading without further investigation can lead to missing important information about the baby's health. Choice C is not the best immediate action, as scheduling a sonogram would provide more detailed information than just repeating the AFP test. Choice D is incorrect as discussing intrauterine surgical correction is premature at this stage and not typically indicated based solely on an elevated AFP level.

5. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Urine Ketones
• B. Rapid plasma reagin
• C. Prothrombin time
• D. Urine culture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Urine ketones should be anticipated as a laboratory test for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum because it helps assess the severity of dehydration and malnutrition, which are common complications of this condition. Choice B, rapid plasma reagin, is a test for syphilis and is not relevant to hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, prothrombin time, is a measure of blood clotting function and is not typically indicated for hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice D, urine culture, is used to identify bacteria in the urine and is not directly related to assessing dehydration and malnutrition in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum.

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