Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribed furosemide for a 4-year-old child with a ventricular septal defect. Which outcome indicates to the nurse that this pharmacological intervention was effective?

• A. Urine specific gravity changing from 1.021 to 1.031
• B. Daily weight decrease of 2 pounds (0.9 kg)
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) increasing from 8 to 12 mg/dl (2.9 to 4.3)
• D. Urinary output decreasing by 5 ml/hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A daily weight decrease of 2 pounds (0.9 kg) is the most appropriate outcome to indicate the effectiveness of furosemide in a child with a ventricular septal defect. Furosemide is a diuretic medication that helps reduce fluid retention. Therefore, a decrease in weight reflects a reduction in fluid volume, which is the desired effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because changes in urine specific gravity, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels, and urinary output do not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in this context.

2. The healthcare provider believes that a client who frequently requests pain medication may have a substance abuse problem. Which intervention reflects the healthcare provider's value of client autonomy over veracity?

• A. Administer the prescribed analgesic when requested
• B. Refer the client to a substance abuse program
• C. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to provide a placebo
• D. Document the frequency of medication requests

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering the prescribed analgesic when requested is the most appropriate intervention that reflects the healthcare provider's value of client autonomy over veracity. This action respects the client's right to manage their pain and avoids deception. Referring the client to a substance abuse program (Choice B) assumes a diagnosis without evidence and does not respect the client's autonomy. Collaborating to provide a placebo (Choice C) would involve deception, which goes against the value of veracity. Documenting the frequency of medication requests (Choice D) is important for the client's care but does not directly address the issue of respecting client autonomy over veracity.

3. The nurse is caring for a comatose client. Which assessment finding provides the greatest indication that the client has an open airway?

• A. The client has asymmetrical chest expansion
• B. Percussion reveals dullness over the lung area
• C. Bilateral breath sounds can be auscultated
• D. The client has been turned q2h

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Bilateral breath sounds can be auscultated." This finding indicates that air is moving adequately in and out of both lungs, confirming an open airway. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Asymmetrical chest expansion may indicate lung or chest wall abnormalities, percussion revealing dullness over the lung area may suggest consolidation or fluid, and turning the client q2h is a position change intervention to prevent complications, not a direct assessment of airway patency.

4. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medication?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has led to diuresis and lowered the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
• D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client experiences syncope due to a significant drop in blood pressure after receiving multiple antihypertensive medications, the additive effect of these medications can cause the blood pressure to drop excessively. This additive effect can lead to hypotension, which is why the nurse decided to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication. Choices A, B, and D provide incorrect rationales. Choice A mentions diuresis, which is not directly related to the drop in blood pressure due to additive medication effects. Choice B refers to an antagonistic interaction reducing effectiveness, which is not applicable in this scenario. Choice D talks about a synergistic effect leading to drug toxicity, which is not the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure observed in the client.

5. The nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score was 13 on admission. It is now assessed at 6. What is the priority nursing intervention based on the client’s current GCS?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the GCS score
• B. Prepare the family for the client’s imminent death
• C. Monitor the client q1 hour for changes in the GCS score
• D. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A significant drop in GCS indicates a severe decline in neurological status, necessitating immediate communication with the healthcare provider. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for prompt evaluation and intervention to address the worsening condition. Choice B is incorrect because preparing the family for imminent death is premature and not supported by the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of monitoring should be increased to every 15 minutes rather than every hour due to the significant drop in GCS. Choice D is incorrect because initiating CPR is not indicated based solely on a decreased GCS score.

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