Nursing Elites

1. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes a population that is:

• A. Undergoing rapid evolution due to strong directional selection.
• B. Not evolving and at genetic equilibrium with stable allele frequencies.
• C. Experiencing a founder effect leading to a reduction in genetic diversity.
• D. Dominated by a single homozygous genotype that eliminates all variation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes a theoretical population in which allele frequencies remain constant from generation to generation, indicating that the population is not evolving. This equilibrium occurs under specific conditions: no mutation, no gene flow, random mating, a large population size, and no natural selection. In this scenario, all genotypes are in proportion to the allele frequencies, and genetic diversity is maintained. Options A, C, and D do not accurately describe a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Option A suggests rapid evolution due to strong directional selection, which would disrupt the equilibrium. Option C mentions a founder effect, which can reduce genetic diversity but is not a characteristic of a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Option D describes a population dominated by a single homozygous genotype, which also does not align with the genetic diversity seen in a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

2. What is the primary function of the circulatory system?

• A. To regulate body temperature
• B. To transport oxygen and nutrients
• C. To fight infection
• D. To break down waste

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To transport oxygen and nutrients. The primary function of the circulatory system is to deliver oxygen and essential nutrients to cells throughout the body and remove waste products like carbon dioxide. Choice A is incorrect as regulating body temperature is primarily the function of the body's thermoregulatory system. Choice C is incorrect as fighting infection is mainly the role of the immune system. Choice D is incorrect as breaking down waste is primarily handled by the digestive system.

3. Which of the following factors does not strengthen a scientific argument?

• A. Lack of bias
• B. Extensive use of qualitative research and data
• C. Able to be reproduced and repeated by others
• D. Withstands the test of time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. While qualitative data can provide valuable insights, it does not inherently strengthen a scientific argument to the same extent as quantitative data. Quantitative data is generally more precise, measurable, and easier to verify, making it a stronger basis for scientific arguments. Choices A, C, and D all contribute to strengthening a scientific argument. Lack of bias ensures objectivity and reliability, reproducibility by others validates the findings, and standing the test of time indicates the enduring validity and reliability of the argument.

4. Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor for proper absorption?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Vitamin D
• D. Vitamin B12

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vitamin B12 requires intrinsic factor, a glycoprotein secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach, for proper absorption in the small intestine. Intrinsic factor binds to vitamin B12 and facilitates its absorption in the ileum. Deficiency in intrinsic factor can lead to pernicious anemia, a condition characterized by a lack of vitamin B12 absorption. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Vitamin A is absorbed in the small intestine with the help of bile salts; Vitamin C is absorbed in the small intestine via active transport; Vitamin D is absorbed in the small intestine through a process involving bile salts and micelles. It is essential for students to understand this relationship as it highlights the importance of intrinsic factor in the absorption of specific vitamins and the consequences of its deficiency.

5. Which of the following is the MOST common symptom of angina pectoris, a condition related to insufficient blood flow to the heart?

• A. Fever and chills.
• B. Chest pain or discomfort.
• C. Sudden onset of severe shortness of breath.
• D. Numbness or tingling in the extremities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chest pain or discomfort is the most common symptom of angina pectoris. This pain is often described as squeezing, pressure, heaviness, tightness, or pain in the chest. Fever and chills, sudden onset of severe shortness of breath, and numbness or tingling in the extremities are not typical symptoms of angina pectoris. The pain associated with angina is usually triggered by physical or emotional stress and typically subsides with rest or medication, distinguishing it from other conditions.

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