Nursing Elites

1. Over a period of several weeks, one male participant of a socialization group at a community day care center for the elderly monopolizes most of the group's time and interrupts others when they are talking. What is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation?

• A. Talk to the participant outside the group about his behavior during group meetings.
• B. Remind the participant to allow others in the group a chance to talk.
• C. Allow the group to handle the problem.
• D. Ask the participant to join another group.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Allowing the group to handle the situation is the best action as it promotes group dynamics and empowerment, especially since the group is in the working phase. Talking to the participant individually (A) might be seen as manipulative. Reminding the participant (B) can come across as dictatorial and may not address the underlying issue. Asking the participant to join another group (D) does not address the problem at hand and avoids the opportunity for growth and conflict resolution within the current group.

2. A client's medication sheet contains a prescription for sertraline (Zoloft). To ensure safe administration of the medication, a nurse would administer the dose:

• A. On an empty stomach
• B. At the same time each evening
• C. Evenly spaced around the clock
• D. As needed when the client complains of depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'At the same time each evening.' Sertraline should be administered at the same time each evening to maintain steady drug levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as sertraline does not need to be spaced around the clock. Choice D is incorrect as sertraline is a scheduled medication and should not be taken on an as-needed basis for complaints of depression.

3. A male client is admitted to the mental health unit because he was feeling depressed about the loss of his wife and job. The client has a history of alcohol dependency and admits that he was drinking alcohol 12 hours ago. Vital signs are: temperature, 100 F, pulse 100, and BP 142/100. The nurse plans to give the client lorazepam (Ativan) based on which priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Risk for injury related to suicidal ideation.
• B. Risk for injury related to alcohol detoxification.
• C. Knowledge deficit related to ineffective coping.
• D. Health-seeking behaviors related to personal crisis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis is related to alcohol detoxification (B) because the client has elevated vital signs, a sign of alcohol detoxification. Giving lorazepam (Ativan) to address the elevated vital signs due to alcohol withdrawal is a priority. Addressing the risk for injury related to suicidal ideation (A) should come after stabilizing the client's physiological state. Both (C) and (D) can be addressed once immediate safety needs are met, but the priority is managing the alcohol detoxification to prevent potential complications.

4. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric inpatient unit with a bandaged flesh wound after attempting to shoot himself. He was divorced one year ago, lost his job four months ago, and suffered a breakup of his current relationship last week. What is the most likely source of this client's current feelings of depression?

• A. Feelings of frustration.
• B. A sense of loss.
• C. Poor self-esteem.
• D. A lack of intimate relationships.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's recent life events, including divorce, job loss, and relationship breakup, all contribute to a significant sense of loss, which is likely the source of his current feelings of depression. While feelings of frustration and poor self-esteem could be present, the major life events the client has experienced are more closely associated with a sense of loss. A lack of intimate relationships is not the primary factor contributing to his depression in this scenario.

5. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing distressful thoughts secondary to paranoia. Which intervention(s) should the LPN/LVN include in the plan of care? Select one intervention that does not apply.

• A. Avoid laughing when near the client
• B. Whisper when communicating near the client
• C. Increase socialization of the client among peers
• D. Have the client sign a written release of information form

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing distressful thoughts secondary to paranoia is to avoid laughing when near the client. This is important as laughter can be misinterpreted and exacerbate the client's paranoia. Whispering when communicating near the client is not an appropriate intervention as it may lead the client to think secretive or negative information is being shared about them, further fueling their paranoia. Increasing socialization among peers can help provide support and reduce feelings of isolation, while having the client sign a written release of information form is not directly related to managing paranoia and distressful thoughts.

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