Nursing Elites

1. A client's medication sheet contains a prescription for sertraline (Zoloft). To ensure safe administration of the medication, a nurse would administer the dose:

• A. On an empty stomach
• B. At the same time each evening
• C. Evenly spaced around the clock
• D. As needed when the client complains of depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'At the same time each evening.' Sertraline should be administered at the same time each evening to maintain steady drug levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as sertraline does not need to be spaced around the clock. Choice D is incorrect as sertraline is a scheduled medication and should not be taken on an as-needed basis for complaints of depression.

2. A male employee who is assessed weekly in the employee clinic for blood pressure because of a history of hypertension tells the nurse that he is so upset with one of his co-workers that he would like to shoot him. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Determine if the client has a weapon available for use.
• B. Inform the health care provider of the threat to harm a co-worker.
• C. Notify security of the client's intention to harm a co-worker.
• D. Have the employee escorted to a mental health facility.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Determining if the client has access to a weapon is critical for immediate safety and to prevent potential harm.

3. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
• D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.

4. A client with bipolar disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit in a manic state. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

• A. Allow the client to engage in any activity they choose.
• B. Provide a structured environment with reduced stimuli.
• C. Encourage the client to express their thoughts freely.
• D. Place the client in a room with another client for socialization.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic state, individuals with bipolar disorder may exhibit hyperactivity, impulsivity, and reduced need for sleep. Providing a structured environment with reduced stimuli is the most therapeutic nursing intervention as it can help manage the client's excessive energy and prevent overstimulation. Choice A is incorrect as allowing the client to engage in any activity they choose may exacerbate their symptoms or lead to risky behaviors. Choice C, encouraging the client to express their thoughts freely, may not be appropriate during a manic state as it can further escalate their racing thoughts. Choice D, placing the client in a room with another client for socialization, may not be beneficial during a manic episode as it could increase stimulation and potentially lead to agitation.

5. A female client with borderline personality disorder expresses fear of being abandoned by the nursing staff. What is the best nursing intervention?

• A. Reassure the client that she will not be abandoned.
• B. Set limits on the client's behavior and enforce them consistently.
• C. Encourage the client to talk about her fears.
• D. Rotate the nursing staff assigned to the client frequently.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best nursing intervention for a client with borderline personality disorder expressing fear of abandonment is to set limits on the client's behavior and enforce them consistently. This approach helps establish boundaries and provides a sense of security for the client. Choice A may provide temporary reassurance but does not address the core issue or help the client develop coping strategies. Choice C is important but should be accompanied by setting limits to address the underlying fear of abandonment. Choice D of rotating staff frequently can exacerbate the client's fear of abandonment by reinforcing the idea of being left.

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