Nursing Elites

1. On admission to the psychiatric unit, the client is trembling and appears fearful. The nurse’s initial response should be to

• A. Give the client orientation materials and review the unit rules and regulations
• B. Introduce oneself and accompany the client to their room
• C. Take the client to the day room and introduce them to the other clients
• D. Ask the nursing assistant to get the client’s vital signs and complete the admission search

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In situations where a client is trembling and fearful upon admission to a psychiatric unit, it is essential to prioritize building trust and reducing anxiety. By introducing oneself and accompanying the client to their room, the nurse can establish a therapeutic relationship, provide a sense of security, and address the client's immediate emotional needs. Choices A, C, and D are not the most appropriate initial responses as they do not directly address the client's emotional state or focus on establishing a supportive relationship.

2. The nurse has just admitted a client with severe depression. From which focus should the nurse identify a priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Nutrition
• B. Elimination
• C. Activity
• D. Safety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In severe depression, the priority nursing diagnosis is safety. Individuals with severe depression are at risk of self-harm or suicide. Ensuring the client's safety by implementing measures to prevent harm to themselves or others is crucial. While nutrition, elimination, and activity are important aspects of care, ensuring the client's immediate safety takes precedence in this situation.

3. Certain health policies/strategies serve as guidelines in the delivery of services. Which of these is incorrect?

• A. A growth monitoring chart is a tool recommended for assessing and recording the child's health condition.
• B. Voluntary blood donation should be promoted through the organization of walking blood banks in rural areas.
• C. Public sectors should collaborate with the private sector for effective utilization of resources.
• D. Traditional birth attendants should be trained and allowed to provide prenatal care to mothers.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is incorrect because public sectors are encouraged to collaborate with the private sector for effective utilization of resources, not work separately. Collaborating with the private sector can lead to improved resource allocation, better service delivery, and enhanced healthcare outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are correct as growth monitoring charts are indeed recommended for assessing child health, promoting voluntary blood donation through walking blood banks is beneficial, and training traditional birth attendants to provide prenatal care can improve maternal health.

4. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Which client complaint calls for immediate nursing action?

• A. Diaphoresis and shakiness
• B. Reduced sensation in the lower leg
• C. Intense thirst and hunger
• D. Painful hematoma on thigh

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diaphoresis and shakiness are classic signs of hypoglycemia in a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Hypoglycemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The nurse should address this complaint promptly by providing a fast-acting source of glucose to raise the client's blood sugar levels. Reduced sensation in the lower leg may indicate peripheral neuropathy, which is a common complication of diabetes but does not require immediate action unless there are signs of injury. Intense thirst and hunger are symptoms of hyperglycemia, which also requires intervention but not as urgently as hypoglycemia. A painful hematoma on the thigh may require assessment and management, but it is not as urgent as addressing hypoglycemia.

5. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following lab values would be consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Low serum albumin
• B. High serum cholesterol
• C. Abnormally low white blood cell count
• D. Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK). Elevated CPK levels indicate muscle damage, including damage to the cardiac muscle, which aligns with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Choice A, low serum albumin, is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Choice B, high serum cholesterol, is more associated with conditions like atherosclerosis rather than acute myocardial infarction. Choice C, abnormally low white blood cell count, is typically not a lab value associated with myocardial infarction; instead, it could suggest other conditions like infections or bone marrow issues.

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