on admission to the psychiatric unit the client is trembling and appears fearful the nurses initial response should be to
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Practice Exam

1. On admission to the psychiatric unit, the client is trembling and appears fearful. The nurse’s initial response should be to

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In situations where a client is trembling and fearful upon admission to a psychiatric unit, it is essential to prioritize building trust and reducing anxiety. By introducing oneself and accompanying the client to their room, the nurse can establish a therapeutic relationship, provide a sense of security, and address the client's immediate emotional needs. Choices A, C, and D are not the most appropriate initial responses as they do not directly address the client's emotional state or focus on establishing a supportive relationship.

2. When planning the care for a young adult client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, which of these concerns should the nurse determine to be the priority for long term mobility?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amenorrhea. Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstruation, is a common long-term consequence of anorexia nervosa due to low body weight and hormonal imbalances. Addressing amenorrhea is crucial for the patient's overall health and reproductive potential. Choice A, Digestive problems, may also be a concern in anorexia nervosa, but in terms of long-term mobility, amenorrhea takes priority because of its impact on hormonal balance and bone health. Choice C, Electrolyte imbalance, is important to address in anorexia nervosa due to potential cardiac complications, but it is not directly linked to long-term mobility concerns. Choice D, Blood disorders, while they can occur in anorexia nervosa, are not as directly related to long-term mobility as amenorrhea, which can significantly affect bone health and mobility in the future.

3. The nurse is assessing a 12-year-old who has Hemophilia A. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: A deficiency of clotting factor VIII. Hemophilia A is characterized by a lack of clotting factor VIII, which is crucial for blood clotting. This deficiency results in prolonged bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. There is no association between Hemophilia A and an excess of red blood cells (Choice A) or an excess of white blood cells (Choice B). Additionally, Hemophilia A specifically involves a deficiency of clotting factor VIII, not both factors VIII and IX (Choice D).

4. A client with a peptic ulcer is scheduled for a vagotomy and pyloroplasty. The nurse explains that the purpose of this surgery is to:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Reduce acid secretion." Vagotomy is performed to reduce acid secretion by cutting the vagus nerve, which stimulates acid production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A vagotomy does not increase acid secretion, promote gastric emptying, or remove the ulcerated area. It specifically aims to decrease acid production to help in the healing of peptic ulcers.

5. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of a community health program aimed at reducing teen pregnancy rates. Which outcome indicates the program was successful?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: greater use of contraception among teens. This outcome indicates successful prevention of pregnancies by demonstrating that teens are taking proactive steps to avoid unintended pregnancies. Increased attendance at health education classes (choice A) may show improved knowledge but does not directly measure the prevention of pregnancies. While a decreased number of repeat pregnancies among teens (choice B) is positive, it does not necessarily indicate prevention of initial pregnancies. A higher number of teens seeking prenatal care (choice C) is important for maternal and fetal health but does not directly reflect the prevention of teen pregnancies.

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