which topic should the nurse include in planning a primary prevention class for adolescents
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Community Health HESI Exam

1. Which topic should the nurse include in planning a primary prevention class for adolescents?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct topic that the nurse should include in planning a primary prevention class for adolescents is suicide risks and prevention. Adolescents are particularly vulnerable to mental health issues, including suicidal ideation. Educating them about suicide risks and prevention strategies is crucial for early intervention and support. Choices A, B, and D are important topics, but when considering primary prevention for adolescents, addressing suicide risks and prevention takes precedence due to its immediate life-saving implications.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving erythropoietin (Epogen). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Erythropoietin can lead to hypertension as a side effect due to its stimulation of red blood cell production, which can increase blood viscosity. This can result in elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypoglycemia is not a common side effect of erythropoietin. Hyperkalemia is more commonly associated with renal failure rather than erythropoietin use. Hypocalcemia is not a typical side effect of erythropoietin administration.

3. An example of the continuum health model of health and wellness would be:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The continuum health model emphasizes ongoing health practices based on past behaviors. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a more binary approach to health. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on alternative therapies rather than the continuity of health practices.

4. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. The nurse knows that the client's risk for withdrawal symptoms is greatest within:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12-24 hours. Withdrawal symptoms typically begin within 12-24 hours after the last drink. This period is when the client is at the highest risk for experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical timeline for alcohol withdrawal symptoms to manifest. Symptoms usually peak within the first 24 to 48 hours after the last drink, making the 12-24 hour window critical for monitoring and managing any potential withdrawal complications.

5. The client with atrial fibrillation is being taught about the use of Coumadin (warfarin) at home. Which of these should be emphasized to the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Foods rich in vitamin K. Foods rich in vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Coumadin (warfarin) by promoting blood clotting. It is crucial for clients on this medication to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden dietary changes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not directly related to the interaction of Coumadin (warfarin) with vitamin K. Large indoor gatherings, exposure to sunlight, and active physical exercise do not have a significant impact on the effectiveness of Coumadin (warfarin) in comparison to the interaction with foods rich in vitamin K.

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