Nursing Elites

1. The nurse manager is reviewing medication documentation. Which of the following statements should the nurse plan to include in teaching?

• A. Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.
• B. Avoid abbreviating medication names to prevent errors.
• C. Use generic names only for medications.
• D. Document the dosage, route of administration, and complete medication name.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.' When documenting medications, it is crucial to use the complete name to avoid confusion and errors. Abbreviating medication names (choice B) can lead to misinterpretation and errors in medication administration. Using generic names only for medications (choice C) may not provide enough specificity, leading to potential medication errors. While documenting the dosage and route of administration is important, it is also vital to include the complete medication name (choice D) for accurate record-keeping and to ensure clarity in medication administration.

2. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Joint contractures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

3. Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?

• A. Drowsiness, lethargy, and inactivity
• B. Dry mouth, nasal congestion, and blurred vision
• C. Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression
• D. Hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.

4. During preoperative teaching, a client in a surgeon’s office expresses intent to prepare advance directives before surgery. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of advance directives?

• A. “I’d prefer my brother to make decisions, but I understand it must be my wife.”
• B. “I understand the surgery won’t proceed unless I fill out these forms.”
• C. “I plan to specify my wish to avoid being kept on a breathing machine.”
• D. “I will have my primary doctor review my plan before submitting it at the hospital.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement reflects the client's understanding of advance directives, as it indicates a specific preference regarding life-sustaining treatment. Advance directives enable individuals to outline their healthcare preferences, including decisions about treatments they wish to receive or avoid. Choice A mentions family members but doesn't address specific healthcare wishes; choice B focuses on the surgery rather than personal directives; choice D discusses doctor approval but lacks details about the directive itself.

5. The healthcare professional caring for a patient who is immobile frequently checks for impaired skin integrity. What is the rationale for this action?

• A. Inadequate blood flow leads to decreased tissue ischemia.
• B. Patients with limited caloric intake develop thicker skin.
• C. Pressure reduces circulation to affected tissue.
• D. Verbalization of skin care needs is decreased.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The rationale behind checking for impaired skin integrity in an immobile patient is that pressure reduces circulation to the affected tissue. Prolonged pressure on specific body parts can lead to reduced blood flow to those areas, causing tissue damage and potentially leading to pressure ulcers. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because inadequate blood flow causing decreased tissue ischemia, limited caloric intake leading to thicker skin, and decreased verbalization of skin care needs are not directly related to the rationale for checking for impaired skin integrity in immobile patients.

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