HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is supervising the logrolling of a patient. To which patient is the healthcare professional most likely providing care?
- A. A patient with neck surgery
- B. A patient with hypostatic pneumonia
- C. A patient with a total knee replacement
- D. A patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Logrolling is a technique used to move a patient as a single unit to prevent twisting or bending of the spine. Patients who have undergone neck surgery require special care to ensure the spinal column remains in straight alignment to prevent further injury. Therefore, the correct answer is a patient with neck surgery. Choice B, a patient with hypostatic pneumonia, does not require logrolling, as it is a condition affecting the lungs, not the spine. Choice C, a patient with a total knee replacement, does not typically necessitate logrolling, as the procedure focuses on the knee joint, not the spine. Choice D, a patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer, requires wound care but does not necessarily involve logrolling unless the ulcer is located in a critical area that requires special handling.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?
- A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
- B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
- C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
- D. No special preparation is necessary
Correct answer: D
Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
3. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client in active labor. Which pattern on the fetal heart monitor requires immediate intervention?
- A. Early decelerations
- B. Late decelerations
- C. Accelerations
- D. Moderate variability
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, potentially resulting in fetal hypoxia. Immediate intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause and ensure fetal well-being. Early decelerations are typically benign and associated with head compression during contractions. Accelerations are reassuring and indicate fetal well-being. Moderate variability is a normal finding and indicates a healthy autonomic nervous system response. Therefore, late decelerations (Choice B) require immediate attention, while the other patterns are generally considered normal or benign during labor.
4. During new employee orientation, a nurse is explaining how to prevent IV infections. Which of the following statements by an orientee indicates understanding of the preventive strategies?
- A. “I will leave the IV catheter in place after the client completes the course of IV antibiotics.”
- B. “As long as I am working with the same client, I can use the same IV catheter for my second insertion attempt.”
- C. “If my client needs to use the restroom, it would be safer to disconnect their IV infusion as long as I clean the injection port thoroughly with an antiseptic swab.”
- D. “I will replace any IV catheter when I suspect contamination during insertion.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “I will replace any IV catheter when I suspect contamination during insertion.” This statement demonstrates an understanding of preventive strategies for IV infections. Suspecting and replacing any contaminated IV catheter during insertion is crucial to prevent infections and ensure patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because leaving the IV catheter in place after completing antibiotics, reusing the same IV catheter, and disconnecting the IV infusion without proper precautions can increase the risk of infections. Therefore, option D is the best choice for preventing IV infections.
5. When is a depressed client at highest risk for attempting suicide?
- A. Immediately after admission, during one-to-one observation
- B. 7 to 14 days after initiation of antidepressant medication and psychotherapy
- C. Following an angry outburst with family
- D. When the client is removed from the security room
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Depressed clients are at the highest risk of attempting suicide 7 to 14 days after starting antidepressant medication and psychotherapy. During this time, they may start to regain energy but still feel hopeless, which can increase the risk of suicidal ideation and behavior. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because immediate post-admission, after an angry outburst with family, or when removed from a security room are not specific periods known to be associated with the highest risk of suicide in depressed clients.
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