Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional care for a client approaching death with shortness of breath and noisy respirations?

• A. Turn the client every 2 hours
• B. Provide supplemental oxygen
• C. Use a fan to reduce the feeling of breathlessness
• D. Administer diuretics as prescribed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a palliative care setting, when caring for a client approaching death with symptoms of shortness of breath and noisy respirations, using a fan can help alleviate the sensation of breathlessness. This intervention can provide comfort by improving air circulation and reducing the perception of breathlessness. Turning the client every 2 hours may not directly address the respiratory distress caused by noisy respirations. Providing supplemental oxygen may not be indicated or effective in all cases, especially in end-of-life care where the focus is on comfort rather than aggressive interventions. Administering diuretics as prescribed would not be appropriate for addressing noisy respirations and shortness of breath in a dying client, as this may not be related to fluid overload or congestion. Therefore, the most appropriate action to help the client feel more comfortable in this situation is to use a fan to reduce the feeling of breathlessness.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse how to perform a capillary blood glucose test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Don sterile gloves after cleansing the site
• B. Puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries
• C. Gently wipe the puncture site until a large droplet of blood forms
• D. Hold the finger below the heart level to puncture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries. This sequence helps ensure proper blood collection without introducing contaminants. Choice A is incorrect because wearing sterile gloves is not necessary for capillary blood glucose testing. Choice C is incorrect as wiping the puncture site can introduce contaminants and alter the blood sample. Choice D is incorrect as holding the finger below the heart level is not required for a capillary blood glucose test.

3. Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are labeled 1.5 grains per tablet. How many tablets should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?

• A. 0.5 tablet
• B. 1 tablet
• C. 1.5 tablets
• D. 2 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, convert the prescribed dose of Seconal from grams to grains. Since 1 gram is equal to approximately 15.43 grains, 0.1 gram is roughly 1.543 grains. Given that each tablet contains 1.5 grains, administering 1 tablet (which is slightly more than the 1.543 grains needed) provides the correct dose of Seconal. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should plan to administer 1 tablet. Choice A (0.5 tablet) is incorrect as it would provide less than the required dose. Choice C (1.5 tablets) and Choice D (2 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the necessary dosage.

4. During an abdominal assessment for an adult client, what is the correct sequence of steps?

• A. Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate
• B. Palpate, Percuss, Inspect, Auscultate
• C. Auscultate, Inspect, Percuss, Palpate
• D. Percuss, Palpate, Inspect, Auscultate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence for an abdominal assessment in an adult client is to first Inspect the abdomen for any visible abnormalities, then Auscultate to listen for bowel sounds, followed by Percussion to assess for organ size and presence of fluid or masses, and finally Palpation to feel for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choice A, 'Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate,' is the correct sequence for an abdominal assessment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the recommended sequence of assessment. Palpation should be the last step as it can potentially alter bowel sounds and percussion findings if done before. This deviation can lead to missing important findings or inaccurate assessment results.

5. When interviewing the parents of a child with asthma, what information about the child's environment should be gathered most importantly?

• A. Household pets
• B. New furniture
• C. Lead-based paint
• D. Plants such as cactus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a child with asthma, it is crucial to gather information about potential triggers in their environment. Household pets, such as cats or dogs, are common triggers for asthma attacks due to pet dander and saliva. This information is essential to identify if exposure to pets at home could be exacerbating the child's asthma symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in the context of asthma triggers. New furniture, lead-based paint, and plants like cactus are not typically primary triggers for asthma attacks compared to common allergens like pet dander.

Similar Questions