Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer 0.5 mL of oral single-dose liquid medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Gently shake the container of medication prior to administration
• B. Transfer the medication to a medicine cup
• C. Place the client in a semi-Fowler’s position for medication administration
• D. Verify the dosage by measuring the liquid before administering it

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to gently shake the container of liquid medication before administration. Shaking the container ensures proper mixing of the medication, which is important to maintain uniformity of the dose. Transferring the medication to a medicine cup (choice B) may not be necessary for a small volume like 0.5 mL. Placing the client in a semi-Fowler's position (choice C) is not directly related to administering liquid medication orally. Verifying the dosage by measuring the liquid (choice D) is important but does not address the specific action needed to prepare the medication for administration.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient with a spinal cord injury and notices that the patient's hips have a tendency to rotate externally when the patient is supine. Which device will the healthcare provider use to help prevent injury secondary to this rotation?

• A. Hand rolls
• B. A trapeze bar
• C. A trochanter roll
• D. Hand-wrist splints

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A trochanter roll is the correct choice as it is used to prevent external rotation of the hips when the patient is in a supine position. Hand rolls (Choice A) are incorrect because they are used to prevent contractures of the fingers, wrist, and hand. A trapeze bar (Choice B) is not the correct option as it helps patients change positions in bed and aids with movement, not specifically for hip rotation. Hand-wrist splints (Choice D) are also incorrect as they are used to maintain the functional position of the wrist and hand, not to address hip rotation.

3. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

4. When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Coagulation time
• C. Prothrombin time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.

5. During an assessment, a client receiving tube feedings via NG tube shows signs of nasal mucosa irritation. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Irritation of nasal mucosa
• C. Sodium 144 mEq/L
• D. Loose stools

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritation of nasal mucosa is a crucial finding that the nurse should report to the provider as it suggests potential complications with NG tube placement, such as improper positioning or mucosal damage. High potassium levels (Choice A) can be concerning but are not directly related to NG tube placement issues. Normal sodium levels (Choice C) and loose stools (Choice D) are common occurrences in clients receiving tube feedings and are not typically indicative of immediate complications that require urgent reporting.

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