Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for antihypertensive medication. Prior to administering the medication, the healthcare professional uses an electronic database to gather information about the medication and the effects it might have on this client. Which of the following components of critical thinking is the healthcare professional using when reviewing the medication information?

• A. Knowledge
• B. Experience
• C. Intuition
• D. Competence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Knowledge. In this scenario, the healthcare professional is utilizing knowledge by gathering and applying information about the medication. Choice B, Experience, is not the best option as the focus is on accessing information about the medication rather than personal experience. Choice C, Intuition, refers to a gut feeling or instinct, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice D, Competence, relates more to overall ability and proficiency rather than the specific act of seeking information.

2. A nurse is planning strategies to manage time effectively for client care. What should the nurse implement?

• A. Use the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery.
• B. Delegate all tasks to assistive personnel.
• C. Focus on completing tasks in the order they are assigned.
• D. Avoid using a checklist for daily tasks.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery is crucial for effective time management. By prioritizing tasks based on client needs and acuity levels, the nurse can ensure that the most critical care is provided in a timely manner. Choice B is incorrect because while delegation is important, not all tasks can be delegated, and the nurse is ultimately responsible for the care provided. Choice C is incorrect as completing tasks in the order they are assigned may not align with the urgency of client needs. Choice D is incorrect as using a checklist can help the nurse stay organized and ensure that all necessary tasks are completed.

3. A client is being treated for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Blood glucose of 350 mg/dL
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• C. Arterial pH of 7.20
• D. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the most concerning laboratory value is an arterial pH of 7.20. An arterial pH of 7.20 indicates severe acidosis, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention. This pH level reflects a significant imbalance in the body's acid-base status, potentially leading to serious complications. High blood glucose levels (choice A) are expected in DKA but do not directly indicate the severity of acidosis. A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L (choice B) is low but not as immediately critical as a pH of 7.20. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L (choice D) is elevated, which can occur in DKA due to insulin deficiency, but it is not the most concerning value in this scenario.

4. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?

• A. Testicular examination
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Fecal occult blood
• D. Prostate-specific antigen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.

5. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

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