Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

2. During an admission assessment, a nurse is documenting a client's medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Counsel the client on medication adherence.
• B. Assess the client for medication reactions.
• C. Compile a list of the client's current medications.
• D. Evaluate the client's understanding of medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an admission assessment, compiling a list of the client's current medications is crucial for accurate documentation and planning. This information helps prevent medication errors, identify potential interactions, and ensure continuity of care. While counseling the client on medication adherence (Choice A) is important, it is not the primary action when documenting medications. Assessing the client for medication reactions (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring side effects but not the immediate focus during documentation. Evaluating the client's understanding of medications (Choice D) is essential for education but does not address the immediate need for compiling a list of current medications.

3. How should the nurse transcribe the dosage of this medication on the client's medical record?

• A. 0.3 mg
• B. 0.3 mg
• C. 0.30 mg
• D. 3/10 mg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct way to transcribe the dosage of three tenths of a milligram of levothyroxine IV STAT is 0.3 mg. When expressing decimals less than 1, there should be a leading zero before the decimal point. Choice A is incorrect (.3 mg) because it lacks the leading zero. Choice C (0.30 mg) is incorrect as it includes a trailing zero after the decimal point, which is unnecessary. Choice D (3/10 mg) is incorrect as it presents the dosage as a fraction, which is not the standard format for transcribing medication dosages. Therefore, B (0.3 mg) is the most appropriate and accurate way to document this prescription on the client's medical record.

4. A nurse in a provider's office is obtaining the health and medication history of a client who has a respiratory infection. The client tells the nurse that she is not aware of any allergies, but that she did develop a rash the last time she was taking an antibiotic. Which of the following information should the nurse give to the client?

• A. We need to document the exact medication you were taking because you might be allergic to it.
• B. You should take a different type of antibiotic this time.
• C. A rash is a common reaction and is not usually concerning.
• D. You can take the same antibiotic again if needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to document the exact medication taken to identify potential allergies and prevent adverse reactions. This is important as the client developed a rash previously while taking an antibiotic, indicating a possible allergic reaction. Choice B is not appropriate as switching antibiotics without proper evaluation can be risky. Choice C is incorrect as rashes should not be dismissed without further investigation, especially in the context of taking medication. Choice D is also not recommended as re-taking the same antibiotic without clarifying the allergic reaction can lead to a potentially severe outcome.

5. In planning care for a premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome, nursing actions are based on the fact that the most likely cause of this problem stems from the infant's inability to

• A. Stabilize alveolar surface tension
• B. Maintain alveolar surface tension
• C. Promote normal pulmonary blood flow
• D. Regulate intra-cardiac pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain alveolar surface tension. Respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants is often caused by a deficiency in surfactant, a substance that helps maintain alveolar surface tension. Without adequate surfactant, the alveoli collapse, making it difficult for the infant to oxygenate effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because stabilizing alveolar surface tension is not the issue, promoting normal pulmonary blood flow and regulating intra-cardiac pressure are not directly related to the pathophysiology of respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants.

Similar Questions