Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

2. The nurse is caring for a 17-month-old child with acetaminophen poisoning. Which laboratory reports should the nurse review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the drug's metabolism in the liver. Monitoring liver enzymes such as AST and ALT is crucial as they indicate liver function and damage. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice A) are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts (Choice B) are not directly related to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels (Choice C) assess kidney function, but liver enzymes are more specific for evaluating liver damage in acetaminophen poisoning.

3. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site is most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to use?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal site
• C. Dorsogluteal site
• D. Rectus femoris site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the most appropriate and safest site for administering an intramuscular injection to an adult client. It is preferred due to its thick muscle mass and fewer major blood vessels and nerves in the area, reducing the risk of injury or complications. The deltoid muscle is commonly used for vaccines and small-volume injections but may not be suitable for larger volumes. The dorsogluteal site has fallen out of favor due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and other underlying structures. The rectus femoris site is not typically used for intramuscular injections in adults.

4. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• C. Measure the client's vital signs.
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin sublingually. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is the priority action for a client with chest pain and a history of coronary artery disease. Nitroglycerin helps dilate the coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and providing rapid relief of chest pain. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG, measuring vital signs, and administering oxygen are important actions but should follow the administration of nitroglycerin in the management of chest pain in a client with coronary artery disease.

5. A client has had their diet prescription changed to a mechanical soft diet. Which of the following food items should the nurse remove from the client's breakfast tray?

• A. smoothie
• B. sliced banana
• C. pancakes
• D. sunny side up (fried) eggs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: sunny side up (fried) eggs.' Fried eggs should be removed as they are not suitable for a mechanical soft diet due to their texture. The yolk of a fried egg is usually too hard and can be difficult for a client on a mechanical soft diet to chew and swallow. Poached or scrambled eggs are better alternatives for this diet as they are softer and easier to consume. Choices A, B, and C are all suitable for a mechanical soft diet as they are softer in texture and easier to chew and swallow.

Similar Questions