Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has MRSA. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of teaching?

• A. I will place the client in a private room
• B. I will tell the client’s visitors to wear a mask when they are within 3 feet of the client
• C. I will remove my gown after leaving the client’s room
• D. I will wear an N95 respirator mask when caring for the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I will place the client in a private room.' Placing the client in a private room helps prevent the spread of MRSA, a contact precaution. Choice B is incorrect because visitors should be following standard precautions for MRSA, not just wearing a mask within a specific distance. Choice C is incorrect as the gown should be removed before exiting the client's room to prevent the spread of MRSA. Choice D is incorrect as an N95 respirator mask is not typically required for the care of a client with MRSA; standard precautions are usually sufficient.

3. During a staff meeting, a nurse is discussing the purpose of regulatory agencies. Which of the following tasks should the nurse identify as the responsibility of state licensing boards?

• A. Monitoring evidence-based practice for clients with specific diagnoses.
• B. Ensuring that health care providers comply with regulations.
• C. Setting quality standards for accrediting health care facilities.
• D. Determining the safety of medications for administration to clients.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: State licensing boards are primarily responsible for ensuring that health care providers comply with regulations. This includes overseeing licensure requirements, investigating complaints, and enforcing disciplinary actions. Monitoring evidence-based practice for clients with specific diagnoses is typically within the domain of professional organizations or healthcare institutions. Setting quality standards for accrediting health care facilities is usually the role of accrediting bodies such as The Joint Commission. Lastly, determining the safety of medications for administration to clients falls under the purview of regulatory agencies like the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

4. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Morphine sulfate
• C. Meperidine (Demerol)
• D. Promethazine (Phenergan)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client’s medications. They include cimetidine and imipramine. Knowing that cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, the healthcare professional should identify that this combination is likely to result in which of the following effects?

• A. Decreased therapeutic effects of cimetidine
• B. Increased risk of imipramine toxicity
• C. Decreased risk of adverse effects of cimetidine
• D. Increased therapeutic effects of imipramine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, it leads to an increased concentration of imipramine in the body, which can result in imipramine toxicity. This increased risk of toxicity is the likely effect of this drug interaction. Choice A is incorrect because cimetidine's effect on imipramine metabolism does not impact the therapeutic effects of cimetidine. Choice C is incorrect because the interaction does not decrease the risk of adverse effects of cimetidine. Choice D is incorrect as the increased concentration of imipramine can lead to toxicity, not increased therapeutic effects.

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