Nursing Elites

1. Methotrexate is prescribed for a client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) who is also taking aspirin. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide as to why a second medication has been added?

• A. Methotrexate slows the disease progression while aspirin controls the symptoms.
• B. Methotrexate helps to reduce the side effects of aspirin.
• C. Methotrexate has fewer harmful side effects than aspirin.
• D. Methotrexate enhances the effect of aspirin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methotrexate is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that slows the progression of rheumatoid arthritis (RA), while aspirin helps control symptoms such as pain and inflammation. Therefore, the combination of methotrexate and aspirin is beneficial in managing RA by addressing both disease progression and symptom control. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not added to reduce the side effects of aspirin, has different side effects compared to aspirin, and does not enhance the effect of aspirin.

2. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?

• A. Stabilization of BP ranges
• B. Cessation of chest pain
• C. Reduced heart rate
• D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.

3. A teenage girl has been placed in a brace for the treatment of scoliosis, the most common skeletal deformity of adolescence. The family asks what they can do to be more supportive. What suggestion from the nurse is the most appropriate?

• A. Enrolling her in a health club
• B. Taking her to the mall in a wheelchair
• C. Purchasing clothes to disguise the brace
• D. Spending a majority of their time with her

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate suggestion from the nurse is to recommend purchasing clothes to disguise the brace. Adolescents with scoliosis often have body image concerns and wish to fit in with their peers. By providing clothes that help conceal the brace, the family can support the teenage girl's emotional well-being. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address the adolescent's concerns about body image and fitting in, making them less appropriate in this situation.

4. To assess the quality of an adult client’s pain, what approach should the nurse use?

• A. Ask the client to rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• B. Ask the client to describe the pain.
• C. Observe the client’s nonverbal cues.
• D. Determine the client’s pain tolerance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct approach for assessing the quality of an adult client's pain is to ask the client to describe the pain. By doing so, the nurse gains valuable information about the quality, location, and nature of the pain directly from the client. This approach allows for a more comprehensive understanding of the pain experience. Choice A, asking the client to rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10, focuses more on intensity rather than quality. Choice C, observing the client's nonverbal cues, can provide additional information but may not fully capture the client's subjective experience of pain. Choice D, determining the client's pain tolerance, is not directly related to assessing the quality of pain but rather to how much pain a client can endure.

5. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

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