Nursing Elites

1. Methotrexate is prescribed for a client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) who is also taking aspirin. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide as to why a second medication has been added?

• A. Methotrexate slows the disease progression while aspirin controls the symptoms.
• B. Methotrexate helps to reduce the side effects of aspirin.
• C. Methotrexate has fewer harmful side effects than aspirin.
• D. Methotrexate enhances the effect of aspirin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methotrexate is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that slows the progression of rheumatoid arthritis (RA), while aspirin helps control symptoms such as pain and inflammation. Therefore, the combination of methotrexate and aspirin is beneficial in managing RA by addressing both disease progression and symptom control. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not added to reduce the side effects of aspirin, has different side effects compared to aspirin, and does not enhance the effect of aspirin.

2. A client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy with a known vesicant. The client's IV has been in place for 72 hours. The nurse determines that a new IV site cannot be obtained and leaves the present IV in place. What is the greatest clinical risk related to this situation?

• A. Impaired skin integrity
• B. Fluid volume excess
• C. Acute pain and anxiety
• D. Peripheral neurovascular dysfunction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Impaired skin integrity. In this situation, the greatest clinical risk is related to impaired skin integrity due to the potential extravasation of the vesicant. Vesicants are substances that can cause severe tissue damage if they leak into the surrounding tissues. Choices B, C, and D are not the most significant risks in this scenario. Fluid volume excess, acute pain, and peripheral neurovascular dysfunction are not directly associated with leaving the IV in place with a known vesicant for an extended period.

3. Based on the interpretation of this strip, what action should be implemented first?

• A. Call a code.
• B. Start CPR.
• C. Administer IV fluids.
• D. Apply oxygen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Call a code.' In the context of ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib), immediate defibrillation is crucial. Calling a code is the first step to activating the emergency response team, including individuals trained to provide defibrillation. Starting CPR (Choice B) may be necessary but should follow defibrillation. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) and applying oxygen (Choice D) are important interventions in cardiac arrest cases, but in V-Fib, the priority is defibrillation to restore normal heart rhythm.

4. What is the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

• A. Clubbing of the digits
• B. Upper extremity hypertension
• C. Pedal edema and portal congestion
• D. Loud systolic ejection murmur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Upper extremity hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta leads to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities. The pressure in the arms is typically 20 mm Hg higher than in the legs. Choice A, clubbing of the digits, is not a common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice C, pedal edema, and portal congestion are more suggestive of conditions like heart failure rather than coarctation of the aorta. Choice D, loud systolic ejection murmur, can be heard in conditions like aortic stenosis, but it is not the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 52, PaCO2 59, HCO3 33. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both PaO2 and PaCO2?

• A. The client is hyperventilating due to anxiety.
• B. The hypoxic drive was reduced by the oxygen therapy.
• C. The client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis.
• D. The client is experiencing metabolic acidosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive in COPD patients, leading to increased PaCO2 levels while improving oxygenation (PaO2). In this case, the increase in PaO2 and PaCO2 is due to the reduction of the hypoxic drive by the supplemental oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to decreased PaCO2. Choice C is incorrect as the ABG values do not indicate respiratory alkalosis. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG values do not support metabolic acidosis.

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