Nursing Elites

1. Methotrexate is prescribed for a client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) who is also taking aspirin. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide as to why a second medication has been added?

• A. Methotrexate slows the disease progression while aspirin controls the symptoms.
• B. Methotrexate helps to reduce the side effects of aspirin.
• C. Methotrexate has fewer harmful side effects than aspirin.
• D. Methotrexate enhances the effect of aspirin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methotrexate is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that slows the progression of rheumatoid arthritis (RA), while aspirin helps control symptoms such as pain and inflammation. Therefore, the combination of methotrexate and aspirin is beneficial in managing RA by addressing both disease progression and symptom control. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not added to reduce the side effects of aspirin, has different side effects compared to aspirin, and does not enhance the effect of aspirin.

2. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately
• B. Take the medication with antacids to reduce stomach upset
• C. Discontinue the medication if you feel drowsy
• D. Increase the dosage if you experience an aura

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately.' Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias, which can manifest as a sore throat or fever. These symptoms could indicate a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin abruptly can lead to rebound seizures; drowsiness is a common side effect that may improve with time. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting the dosage of phenytoin should only be done under healthcare provider supervision, not based on experiencing an aura.

3. What is the priority patient problem for the parents of a newborn born with cleft lip and palate?

• A. Parental role conflict
• B. Risk for delayed growth and development
• C. Risk for impaired attachment
• D. Anticipatory grieving

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Risk for impaired attachment. Parents of a newborn with cleft lip and palate may face challenges in bonding with their child due to the physical appearance, impacting attachment. Promoting bonding between parents and the infant is crucial in this situation. Choice A (Parental role conflict) is incorrect as it focuses on conflicting roles rather than the attachment issue. Choice B (Risk for delayed growth and development) is not the priority issue in this scenario as the immediate concern is establishing a healthy attachment. Choice D (Anticipatory grieving) is not the priority patient problem as it pertains more to the emotional response to an anticipated loss, which is not the primary concern at this stage.

4. A male client tells the nurse that he is experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that he had sexual intercourse four days ago with a woman he casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Observe the perineal area for a chancroid-like lesion.
• B. Obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture.
• C. Assess for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation.
• D. Identify all sexual partners in the last four days.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture. This procedure can help diagnose the cause of burning on urination, which could be indicative of a sexually transmitted infection. Option A, observing for a chancroid-like lesion, may not be the most immediate or relevant action in this case. Option C, assessing for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation, is important but obtaining a culture specimen would provide more specific diagnostic information. Option D, identifying all sexual partners, is relevant for contact tracing but obtaining a culture specimen is the priority to determine the current infection status.

5. Following surgical repair of the bladder, a female client is being discharged from the hospital to home with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide to this client?

• A. Avoid coiling the tubing and keep it free of kinks.
• B. Cleanse the perineal area with soap and water twice daily.
• C. Keep the drainage bag lower than the level of the bladder.
• D. Drink 1,000 ml of fluids daily to irrigate the catheter.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial instruction for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter post-bladder surgery is to keep the drainage bag positioned lower than the level of the bladder. This positioning prevents backflow of urine into the bladder, reducing the risk of infection. Choice A, avoiding coiling the tubing and keeping it free of kinks, is important to maintain proper flow but not as critical as ensuring the drainage bag is lower than the bladder. Choice B, cleansing the perineal area, is essential for overall hygiene but not directly related to catheter care instructions. Choice D, drinking fluids to irrigate the catheter, is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection and should be guided by healthcare providers based on specific needs.

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