Nursing Elites

1. In planning care for a client with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse can anticipate that the client will:

• A. Be at an increased susceptibility for infection
• B. Have a wound that heals more slowly
• C. Experience more pain during the healing process
• D. Require more frequent dressing changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wounds healing by secondary intention involve the gradual filling of the wound with granulation tissue, leading to a higher risk of infection due to prolonged exposure. This makes choice A the correct answer. Choices B and C are incorrect because wounds healing by secondary intention take longer to heal and often result in more pain compared to wounds healing by primary intention. Choice D is also incorrect as wounds healing by secondary intention usually require more frequent dressing changes to prevent infection and promote healing.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for knee-length anti-embolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Remove the client’s stockings at least once during each shift
• B. Roll the top of the client’s stockings down to just below the knee
• C. Seat the client in a chair for 30 minutes prior to applying stockings
• D. Measure the length of the client’s leg from the heel to the gluteal fold

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to remove the client’s stockings at least once during each shift. This is important to inspect the skin and prevent complications such as pressure injuries or impaired circulation. Rolling the top of the stockings down can compromise their effectiveness in preventing blood clots. Seating the client in a chair prior to applying stockings is not directly related to the care of anti-embolic stockings. Measuring the length of the client’s leg from the heel to the gluteal fold is not necessary for the application or care of knee-length anti-embolic stockings.

3. A client is admitted for evaluation and control of HTN. Several hours after the client's admission, the nurse discovers the client supine on the floor, unresponsive to verbal or painful stimuli. The nurse's first reaction at this time is to:

• A. Establish an airway
• B. Call for assistance
• C. Check the client's pulse and blood pressure
• D. Perform CPR

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a client is found unresponsive on the floor, the nurse's first priority is to establish an airway. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and receive oxygen. Without a patent airway, the client's oxygenation and ventilation may be compromised, leading to serious consequences. Calling for assistance is important, but establishing an airway takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's ability to breathe. Checking the client's pulse and blood pressure can be done after ensuring a clear airway. Performing CPR is not the immediate action needed unless the client's breathing and pulse are absent after the airway has been secured.

4. A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

• A. A nurse tied a client's restraints straps to the moveable part of the bed frame.
• B. An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has TB before transporting her to radiology.
• C. A nurse administered a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due.
• D. A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An incident report should be completed when a nurse administers medication to a client significantly earlier than the scheduled time. This deviation from the prescribed schedule could potentially impact the client's treatment plan and requires documentation for proper evaluation and follow-up. Choices A, B, and D do not necessarily require an incident report. Choice A involves improper restraint application, which is a safety issue but does not directly involve medication administration. Choice B involves a protective measure for a client with TB, which is within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. Choice D describes an increase in IV fluid administration, which may need monitoring but does not necessarily indicate a need for an incident report unless there are specific complications or adverse effects related to the additional fluid.

5. The client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?

• A. Potassium
• B. Sodium
• C. Calcium
• D. Magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! When a client is taking furosemide (Lasix), monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the potential for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Low potassium levels can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by furosemide to the same extent as potassium, making them less critical to monitor in this scenario.

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