which assessment data reflects the need for the nurses to include the problem risk for falls in a clients plan of care
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamental Practice Exam

1. Which assessment data reflects the need for nurses to include the problem, “Risk for falls,” in a client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The recent administration of opioid analgesics increases the risk for falls due to potential side effects such as sedation and dizziness. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk for falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate an existing risk but does not directly reflect the need to include 'Risk for falls' in the care plan. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, is important to address but is not directly associated with the risk for falls.

2. A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring the accuracy of the blood type match is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions. The LPN/LVN must prioritize this step to avoid adverse outcomes. Obtaining the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level (Option A) is important but not as critical as ensuring blood type compatibility. Priming the tubing and setting up the blood pump (Option B) and monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes (Option C) are essential steps in the transfusion process, but the primary concern should be preventing transfusion reactions by verifying blood type compatibility.

3. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is unstable and has vital signs measured every 15 minutes by an electronic blood pressure machine. The nurse notices the machine begins to measure the blood pressure at varied intervals and the readings are inconsistent. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should adjust the machine settings. If the electronic blood pressure machine is providing varied intervals and inconsistent readings, it indicates a potential malfunction. Changing the settings may help correct the issue and ensure accurate measurements. Discontinuing the machine and measuring manually every 15 minutes (Choice A) may be time-consuming and impractical. Cleaning the machine (Choice C) is important for routine maintenance but may not address the current issue of varied intervals and inconsistent readings. Increasing the frequency of the readings (Choice D) does not address the problem of inaccurate measurements caused by the malfunctioning machine.

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