Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with Cushing syndrome, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Lactate
• B. Glucose
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Creatinine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with Cushing syndrome, monitoring glucose levels is crucial as Cushing syndrome often leads to hyperglycemia. Elevated glucose levels are a common manifestation of Cushing syndrome due to increased cortisol levels. Monitoring glucose helps in assessing and managing the client's condition effectively. Lactate levels are not typically affected by Cushing syndrome. Hemoglobin and creatinine levels are important for other conditions like anemia and kidney function, but they are not the priority in Cushing syndrome.

2. An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse’s attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?

• A. Have both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant
• B. Listen actively to both nurses and offer suggestions to solve the dilemma
• C. Ask the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies used with the new graduate
• D. Ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best action for the nurse manager to take is to ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together. This approach promotes open communication, facilitates understanding of both perspectives, and encourages collaborative problem-solving. Option A is not ideal as involving a mental health consultant may be premature for this situation. Option B, although helpful in listening to both parties, does not directly address the need for collaboration. Option C focuses on the senior nurse's mentoring strategies only, rather than addressing the conflict between the two nurses.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for frequent hyperglycemic episodes and a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of 10%. Insulin glargine 10 units subcutaneously once a day at bedtime and a sliding scale with insulin aspart q6h are prescribed. What action should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Perform fingerstick glucose assessment q6h with meals
• B. Mix bedtime dose of insulin glargine with insulin aspart sliding scale dose
• C. Review proper foot care and prevention of injury with the client
• D. Avoid contaminating the insulin aspart for IV use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing fingerstick glucose assessments q6h with meals is essential in monitoring the client's blood glucose levels closely, especially when managing hyperglycemic episodes and adjusting insulin doses with a sliding scale. This action helps in determining the effectiveness of the prescribed insulin regimen. Reviewing proper foot care and preventing injury is important for long-term diabetic management but not the immediate priority in this scenario. Mixing insulin glargine with insulin aspart is not recommended, as they are different types of insulin with distinct mechanisms of action. Ensuring the availability of insulin aspart for IV use is not relevant to the client's current care plan.

4. A client is admitted to the hospital with a serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L, distended neck veins, and lung crackles. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Increase the intake of salty foods
• B. Administer NaCl supplements
• C. Restrict oral fluid intake
• D. Hold the client's loop diuretic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client presents with signs of fluid overload and hyponatremia. Restricting oral fluid intake is the appropriate intervention to manage fluid overload and correct hyponatremia. Increasing the intake of salty foods (Choice A) and administering NaCl supplements (Choice B) would exacerbate the sodium imbalance. Holding the client's loop diuretic (Choice D) is not directly related to addressing the fluid overload and hyponatremia.

5. Following a gunshot wound, an adult client has a hemoglobin level of 4 grams/dl (40 mmol/L SI). The nurse prepares to administer a unit of blood for an emergency transfusion. The client has AB negative blood type and the blood bank sends a unit of type A Rh negative, reporting that there is not type AB negative blood currently available. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Transfuse Type A negative blood until type AB negative is available.
• B. Recheck the client’s hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor.
• C. Administer normal saline solution until type AB negative is available.
• D. Obtain additional consent for the administration of type A negative blood.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where AB negative blood is unavailable, type A negative blood can be transfused to a patient with AB negative blood type. Type A negative blood is compatible with AB negative blood, making it a suitable option until the correct blood type becomes available. Transfusion of Type A negative blood is crucial to address the severe anemia promptly. Rechecking the client’s hemoglobin, blood type, and Rh factor (Choice B) may delay necessary treatment. Administering normal saline solution (Choice C) is not a substitute for blood transfusion in cases of severe anemia. Obtaining additional consent for the administration of type A negative blood (Choice D) is unnecessary as the situation is emergent and the blood type is compatible.

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