Nursing Elites

1. Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml D5W at 50 ml/hour has been infusing for 5.5 hours. How much heparin has the client received?

• A. 11,000 units.
• B. 13,000 units.
• C. 15,000 units.
• D. 17,000 units.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the total amount of heparin received, multiply the infusion rate (50 ml/hour) by the total infusion time (5.5 hours). This results in 275 ml of the solution infused. Since there are 20,000 units of heparin in 500 ml, there are 800 units per ml. Therefore, 275 ml contains 220,000 units. However, the heparin is diluted in 500 ml, so the client has received half of this amount, which is 110,000 units. Therefore, the correct answer is 11,000 units. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client's ability to balance. Which of the following actions is appropriate when the healthcare provider conducts a Romberg test?

• A. Ask the client to extend their arms in front of their body.
• B. Ask the client to walk in a straight line heel to toe.
• C. Have the client stand with their feet together.
• D. Have the client place their hands on their hips.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Romberg test is a neurological test that assesses proprioception and balance. To perform this test, the client is asked to stand with their feet together and arms at their sides while closing their eyes. By removing visual input, the test challenges the vestibular and proprioceptive systems. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the proper procedure for conducting the Romberg test. Extending arms in front, walking heel to toe, or placing hands on hips are not part of the Romberg test protocol and may introduce variables that could affect the assessment of balance.

3. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

4. A client reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to assess the quality of the pain?

• A. Is the pain sharp or dull?
• B. Does the pain feel like burning or aching?
• C. Is the pain constant or intermittent?
• D. Does the pain feel like throbbing or stabbing?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing pain quality, asking if the pain is sharp or dull helps determine the nature of the pain. Sharp pain is often associated with acute conditions, while dull pain may indicate a chronic issue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the quality of the pain in terms of sharpness or dullness.

5. The client is preparing for discharge following treatment for heart failure. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will weigh myself every day at the same time.
• B. I will call my doctor if my legs swell more.
• C. I will take my water pill only when I feel short of breath.
• D. I will limit the amount of salt in my diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking water pills (diuretics) only when feeling short of breath is incorrect. Diuretics should be taken regularly as prescribed to manage fluid retention. Option A is correct as daily weight monitoring helps track for fluid retention. Option B is correct as worsening leg swelling should prompt contacting the healthcare provider. Option D is correct as limiting salt intake is essential in managing heart failure. Therefore, option C is the statement that indicates a need for further teaching.

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