Nursing Elites

1. What influences health status?

• A. lifestyle choices and community resources
• B. availability of health technology like diagnostic machines
• C. presence of toxic environmental conditions
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Health status is influenced by a combination of lifestyle choices, community resources, health technology like diagnostic machines, and environmental conditions. Each of these factors plays a role in determining an individual's overall health. Choice A is correct as lifestyle choices (such as diet, exercise, and smoking habits) and access to community resources (like healthcare facilities, support groups, and recreational spaces) are important determinants of health. Choice B is correct as the availability of health technology, including diagnostic machines, can impact early detection and treatment of health conditions. Choice C is correct as exposure to toxic environmental conditions (such as pollution, contaminated water, or hazardous waste) can have adverse effects on health. Therefore, the correct answer is D because all of these factors collectively influence health status.

2. When designing a home health care program for disabled children, which factor should be considered when assessing reimbursement for services from private insurance companies?

• A. greater access to any healthcare provider
• B. allowance for early discharge
• C. concern for the quality of care
• D. approval by the network healthcare provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing reimbursement for services from private insurance companies, approval by the network healthcare provider is crucial. This approval ensures that the services provided are within the approved network, allowing for reimbursement. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the reimbursement process by private insurance companies. While greater access to any healthcare provider, allowance for early discharge, and concern for the quality of care are important considerations when designing a home health care program, they do not specifically impact the reimbursement process from private insurance companies.

3. A client with chronic congestive heart failure should be instructed to contact the home health nurse if which finding occurs?

• A. Weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period
• B. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day
• C. A significant decrease in appetite
• D. Appearance of non-pitting ankle edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period may indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring prompt medical evaluation and intervention. This finding is crucial in managing chronic congestive heart failure as it signifies a potential exacerbation of the condition. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in this context. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day is within the normal range for most individuals and may not be directly related to heart failure. A significant decrease in appetite may be due to various factors and might not be an immediate cause for concern in heart failure patients. The appearance of non-pitting ankle edema, although related to heart failure, is a more chronic and less urgent symptom when compared to a rapid weight gain, which requires immediate attention.

4. What does the term 'health disparity' refer to?

• A. Equal access to healthcare for all individuals
• B. Differences in health outcomes between different population groups
• C. High-quality healthcare for everyone
• D. Providing the same treatments to everyone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. 'Health disparity' refers to differences in health outcomes between different population groups. This term highlights variations in health status or in the distribution of health determinants between different population groups. Choice A is incorrect as health disparity is about health outcomes, not just access to healthcare. Choice C is too broad and not specific to the concept of health disparity. Choice D is incorrect as health disparity recognizes that different populations may need tailored or different treatments based on their specific health needs.

5. The nurse administers a booster dose of DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Tertiary prevention.
• C. Secondary prevention.
• D. Primary nursing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Administering a booster dose of DTaP vaccine to an infant is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice B, tertiary prevention, is incorrect as it deals with managing the consequences of a disease rather than preventing it. Choice C, secondary prevention, is also incorrect as it focuses on early detection and treatment rather than vaccination to prevent the disease. Choice D, primary nursing, is unrelated to the level of prevention being implemented in this scenario.

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