a client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complicati
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Exam

1. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperglycemia. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) contains a high glucose content, which can lead to elevated blood sugar levels, resulting in hyperglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial in clients receiving TPN to prevent complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because TPN is more likely to cause hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, or hyponatremia.

2. Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent the spread of communicable diseases in a community?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Immunization programs are the most effective way to prevent the spread of communicable diseases. Vaccinations help build immunity against specific diseases, reducing the likelihood of an outbreak. Regular health check-ups (Choice A) are important for individual health but do not directly prevent the spread of diseases on a community level. Isolation of infected individuals (Choice B) is a containment measure rather than prevention for the entire community. Public health education (Choice D) is valuable in raising awareness but may not be as effective as immunization programs in directly preventing the spread of communicable diseases.

3. What is an important basis in preparing the family health care plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In preparing a family health care plan, it is crucial to consider the needs and problems as perceived and accepted by the family members themselves. This ensures that the plan aligns with the family's beliefs, values, and preferences, leading to better acceptance and adherence. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the active involvement and acceptance of the family in recognizing their needs and problems are essential for effective health care planning.

4. Mark, 9 months old, is given oral rehydration solution because of diarrhea with some dehydration. In your follow-up visit, you observed that Mark's eyes become puffy. Which one of the following would you advise Mark's mother?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, observing puffy eyes in a child being treated with oral rehydration solution may indicate fluid overload. Continuing to give ORS but more slowly is the correct course of action as it helps manage hydration without overloading fluids. Choice B is not the best option in this situation as the issue is not about the quantity of the solution, but the rate of administration. Choice C is incorrect because plain water or milk is not a suitable alternative for rehydration in cases of dehydration. Choice D is also incorrect as reassessing the patient does not directly address the issue of puffy eyes, which suggests a need to adjust the administration of ORS.

5. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

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