Nursing Elites

1. When providing nursing care to a client receiving oxygen therapy via a nasal cannula, which of the following interventions would be appropriate?

• A. Ensure that adequate mist is supplied
• B. Inspect the nares and ears for skin breakdown
• C. Lubricate the tips of the cannula before insertion
• D. Maintain sterile technique when handling the cannula

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inspect the nares and ears for skin breakdown. This is important because the nasal cannula can cause skin breakdown due to prolonged use and friction. Ensuring that the skin is intact helps prevent complications. Choice A is incorrect as oxygen therapy via a nasal cannula does not involve mist. Choice C is incorrect as lubricating the tips of the cannula is not a standard practice and may lead to complications. Choice D is incorrect because while cleanliness is important, maintaining sterile technique is not necessary for handling a nasal cannula in this context.

2. The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?

• A. Administration of cough suppressants
• B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
• C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
• D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day is the most effective in removing respiratory secretions in a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps thin secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Administration of cough suppressants (Choice A) may hinder the removal of secretions by suppressing the cough reflex. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the removal of respiratory secretions. Performing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) is beneficial for mobilizing secretions but may not be as effective as increasing fluid intake in thinning and facilitating the removal of secretions.

3. Building a healthy community is based on the following basic principles except:

• A. concreteness and reasoning to understand and solve problems
• B. human beings do not function independently but as a group
• C. the target of change is not individual or family but community
• D. environmental factors are more basic than institutional factors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Building a healthy community is indeed based on principles like concreteness, group dynamics, and focusing on community-level change. However, stating that environmental factors are more basic than institutional factors is incorrect. Both environmental and institutional factors play crucial roles in community health. Environmental factors like access to healthcare, clean water, and safe housing are vital, while institutional factors such as healthcare systems, education, and governance also significantly impact community health. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as environmental factors are not more basic than institutional factors.

4. What is the primary function of a public health nurse?

• A. Provide bedside care
• B. Administer medications
• C. Promote and protect the health of populations
• D. Perform surgical procedures

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary function of a public health nurse is to promote and protect the health of populations. Public health nurses focus on preventing diseases, promoting healthy behaviors, and addressing health disparities within communities. Providing bedside care (choice A) is typically done by nurses in clinical settings, not public health nurses. Administering medications (choice B) is part of nursing practice but not the primary role of a public health nurse. Performing surgical procedures (choice D) is usually the responsibility of surgical nurses or healthcare providers specializing in surgery, not public health nurses.

5. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Jaundice evident at 26 hours
• B. Hematocrit of 55%
• C. Serum bilirubin of 12 mg/dL
• D. Positive Coombs test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

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