Nursing Elites

1. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

2. The nurse at a health fair has taken a client's blood pressure twice, 10 minutes apart, in the same arm while the client is seated. The nurse records the two blood pressures of 172/104 mm Hg and 164/98 mm Hg. What is the appropriate nursing action in response to these readings?

• A. Refer the client to a nutritionist after providing health teaching about a low-sodium diet.
• B. Place the client in a recumbent position and call the paramedics for transport to the hospital.
• C. Talk with the client to assess whether there is stress in the client's life and refer to a counseling service.
• D. Take the client's blood pressure in the other arm and then schedule a healthcare practitioner's appointment for as soon as possible.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The appropriate nursing action in response to significantly high blood pressure readings like 172/104 mm Hg and 164/98 mm Hg is to confirm the readings by taking the blood pressure in the other arm. This can help rule out any error or issue specific to that arm. The nurse should then schedule a healthcare practitioner's appointment for as soon as possible to further assess the client's condition and determine the appropriate intervention. Choice A is incorrect because solely referring the client to a nutritionist for a low-sodium diet without further assessment or confirmation of the blood pressure readings is premature. Choice B is incorrect as the client is already seated, and calling paramedics for immediate transport to the hospital is not warranted based solely on the blood pressure readings provided. Choice C is incorrect as stress may not be the sole reason for the high blood pressure readings, and further assessment is required before referring the client to counseling services.

3. A senior high school student, whose immunization status is current, asks the school nurse which immunizations will be included in the precollege physical. Which vaccine should the nurse tell the student to expect to receive?

• A. Hepatitis C (HepC)
• B. Influenza type B (HIB)
• C. Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
• D. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (DTaP)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR). MMR vaccine is commonly included in precollege physicals to ensure students are protected against these diseases. Choice A, Hepatitis C (HepC), is incorrect as the standard vaccine for hepatitis given in childhood is Hepatitis B. Choice B, Influenza type B (HIB), is not typically administered during precollege physicals but is recommended for younger children. Choice D, Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (DTaP), is usually given in early childhood and not typically repeated during precollege physicals.

4. The community health nurse is planning a series of educational courses about the healthcare system and meeting healthcare needs for the community center. Which adjunct issue should the nurse address for a group of older adults?

• A. Peer concerns.
• B. Adult daycare.
• C. Retirement issues.
• D. Vocational concerns.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When planning educational courses for older adults, addressing adult daycare is crucial as it is a relevant issue that can impact their daily lives and access to healthcare services. Peer concerns may not be directly related to healthcare needs, retirement issues are important but not as immediate in terms of healthcare access, and vocational concerns are more pertinent to working-age individuals.

5. The nurse is planning care for a client with increased intracranial pressure. The best position for this client is

• A. Trendelenburg
• B. Prone
• C. Semi-Fowler's
• D. Side-lying with head flat

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Semi-Fowler's. This position helps to reduce intracranial pressure by promoting venous drainage from the head while maintaining adequate oxygenation. Option A, Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves placing the patient with the head lower than the body, which can increase intracranial pressure. Option B, Prone position, is also incorrect as it involves lying on the stomach, which can further elevate intracranial pressure. Option D, Side-lying with head flat, does not provide the same benefits as the Semi-Fowler's position in terms of promoting venous drainage and maintaining oxygenation in a client with increased intracranial pressure.

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