Nursing Elites

1. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

2. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following signs of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Digoxin toxicity often presents with bradycardia, which is a common sign of toxicity associated with this medication. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically seen with digoxin toxicity. Hypotension (Choice B) can occur but is less specific to digoxin toxicity. Hyperglycemia (Choice D) is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, monitoring for bradycardia is crucial in clients receiving digoxin to detect toxicity early.

3. Under which level of primary health care workers does a rural sanitary inspector fall?

• A. Village health workers
• B. Intermediate level health workers
• C. Barangay health workers
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rural sanitary inspectors are classified as intermediate level health workers. They are not categorized under village health workers or barangay health workers. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

4. As the immediate supervisor of the Rural Health Midwives, the PHN prepares a supervisory plan. Which of the following would be the PHN's activity?

• A. performing needs assessment
• B. listing supervisory activities
• C. identifying the training needs
• D. formulating objectives for supervision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: listing supervisory activities. When preparing a supervisory plan, the Public Health Nurse (PHN) needs to list the specific supervisory activities that need to be carried out. This helps in organizing and outlining the tasks that need to be accomplished to ensure effective supervision. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although needs assessment, identifying training needs, and formulating objectives are important aspects of supervisory planning, they are not specifically related to the act of preparing a detailed list of supervisory activities.

5. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Jaundice evident at 26 hours
• B. Hematocrit of 55%
• C. Serum bilirubin of 12 mg/dL
• D. Positive Coombs test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

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