duchenne muscular dystrophy is a sex linked abnormality
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HESI Maternity 55 Questions

1. Is Duchenne muscular dystrophy a sex-linked abnormality?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, primarily affecting males. This is due to the inheritance of the mutated gene on the X chromosome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is specifically classified as a sex-linked disorder affecting males due to the inheritance pattern.

2. Monozygotic (MZ) twins are known as fraternal twins.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'FALSE.' Monozygotic (MZ) twins are identical twins, not fraternal. Fraternal twins are dizygotic (DZ). The statement in the question is incorrect as MZ twins are genetically identical, while fraternal twins actually refer to dizygotic twins who develop from two separate fertilized eggs. Therefore, monozygotic twins are not known as fraternal twins, making option B the correct choice. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the relationship between monozygotic and fraternal twins.

3. Which statement by the client will assist the healthcare provider in determining whether she is in true labor as opposed to false labor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular, strong contractions with the presence of cervical change indicate that the woman is experiencing true labor. Choice A indicates the passing of the mucus plug, which is a sign of early labor but not definitive for true labor. Choice B, the breaking of the bag of waters, is a sign of labor but does not confirm whether it is true or false labor. Choice D, the baby dropping and increased urination frequency, suggests lightening, a sign that labor may be approaching, but it does not confirm true labor.

4. When reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client, which of the following factors places the client at risk for infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Midline episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening. This procedure increases the risk of infection in the postpartum period due to the incision site being a potential entry point for pathogens. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid (choice A) is a risk factor for fetal distress but does not directly increase the mother's risk of infection. Placenta previa (choice B) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding issues but not necessarily an increased risk of infection. Gestational hypertension (choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that affects some pregnant women but is not directly associated with an increased risk of infection in the postpartum period.

5. Four clients at full term present to the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should a nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes requires immediate assessment as she may be in active labor or at risk of infection. The vaginal show and leaking membranes suggest potential rupture of membranes and the start of labor. Assessing her first ensures prompt management and monitoring. The other options, while important, do not indicate immediate or emergent needs. Contractions every three minutes in a multipara can be managed with ongoing monitoring; non-stress tests and biophysical profiles can be scheduled and are not acute needs. Burning on urination and urinary frequency in a primipara may indicate a urinary tract infection, which is important but not as urgent as assessing for active labor or rupture of membranes.

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