Nursing Elites

1. At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?

• A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
• B. Fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
• C. Third intercostal space to the left of the sternum
• D. Fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the aortic valve is the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. This area corresponds to the aortic valve area where aortic valve sounds are best heard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect for auscultating the aortic valve. The fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the mitral valve is best heard, the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the pulmonic valve is best heard, and the fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line is where the tricuspid valve is best auscultated.

2. While interviewing a client, the nurse records the assessment in the electronic health record. Which statement is most accurate regarding electronic documentation during an interview?

• A. The client's comfort level is increased when the nurse maintains eye contact while typing notes into the record
• B. The interview process is hindered by electronic documentation and may disrupt the flow of conversation
• C. The nurse has limited ability to observe nonverbal communication while entering the assessment electronically
• D. Completing the electronic record during an interview is optional and not a legal obligation of the examining nurse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most accurate statement is that the nurse has a limited ability to observe nonverbal communication while entering the assessment electronically. This is because the nurse's focus is on typing or inputting data, which may lead to missing important nonverbal cues from the client. Choices A and B are incorrect as they do not address the limitation of observing nonverbal cues. Choice A is incorrect because breaking eye contact to type notes may hinder the client's comfort level. Choice B is incorrect because it states that electronic documentation enhances the interview process, which may not always be the case. Choice D is incorrect as completing the electronic record during an interview is typically a standard practice but not a legal obligation.

3. When a client decides not to have surgery despite significant blockages of the coronary arteries, it is an example of which of the following ethical principles?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Nonmaleficence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is autonomy. Autonomy is the ethical principle that upholds an individual's right to make decisions about their healthcare, including the choice to refuse treatment or surgery. In this scenario, the client's decision not to have surgery despite the recommendation is an exercise of autonomy. Choice A, fidelity, refers to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not applicable in this situation. Choice C, justice, pertains to fair and equal distribution of resources and treatment, not the individual's right to make decisions. Choice D, nonmaleficence, relates to the obligation to do no harm, which is not directly applicable to the client's decision to refuse surgery.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should the nurse take?

• A. Infuse normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate.
• B. Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin.
• C. Infuse 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr.
• D. Obtain a stat blood glucose level and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infusing 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr is the correct action to prevent hypoglycemia until the next TPN solution becomes available. This solution will help maintain the client's glucose levels. Infusing normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate (Choice A) is not appropriate for maintaining glucose levels and would not address the nutritional needs provided by TPN. Discontinuing the IV and flushing the port with heparin (Choice B) is unnecessary and not indicated in this situation as the client still needs fluid and nutrition. Obtaining a stat blood glucose level and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done later but is not the immediate action required when the TPN solution has run out.

5. A nurse discovers a small paper fire in a trash can in a client’s bathroom. The client has been taken to safety and the alarm has been activated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Open the windows in the client’s room to allow smoke to escape.
• B. Obtain a class C fire extinguisher to extinguish the fire.
• C. Remove all electrical equipment from the client’s room.
• D. Place wet towels along the base of the door to the client’s room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obtain a class C fire extinguisher to extinguish the fire. Using a class C fire extinguisher is appropriate for electrical fires, which can include fires involving electrical equipment or appliances. In this scenario, a paper fire in a trash can in the client's bathroom could potentially involve electrical components, making a class C fire extinguisher the most suitable choice. Option A, opening the windows, may help with ventilation but does not address the fire directly. Option C, removing electrical equipment, is a precautionary measure but does not address the immediate fire hazard. Option D, placing wet towels along the base of the door, is a strategy to prevent smoke from entering the room but does not extinguish the fire.

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