Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is collecting data to evaluate a middle adult's psychosocial development. The healthcare professional should expect middle adults to demonstrate which of the following developmental tasks? (Select ONE that does not apply.)

• A. Develop an acceptance of diminished strength and increased dependence on others.
• B. Spend time focusing on improving job performance.
• C. Welcome opportunities to be creative and productive.
• D. Commit to finding friendship and companionship.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Middle adulthood is a stage where individuals typically focus on various developmental tasks. Option A is incorrect as middle adults do not necessarily develop an acceptance of diminished strength and increased dependence on others; they often strive to maintain independence. Option B is correct as middle adults are usually focused on improving job performance and advancing their careers. Option C is correct as middle adults tend to welcome opportunities to be creative and productive, engaging in new hobbies or projects. Option D is correct as middle adults often commit to finding friendship and companionship as they value social connections and support networks. Therefore, options B, C, and D are the expected developmental tasks for middle adults, making them the correct choices.

2. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?

• A. I have problems with diarrhea.
• B. I have difficulty falling asleep.
• C. I have diminished sexual function.
• D. I often feel jittery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.

3. A client who is 3 days post-op following a cholecystectomy has yellow and thick drainage on the dressing. The nurse suspects a wound infection. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as:

• A. Purulent
• B. Serous
• C. Sanguineous
• D. Serosanguineous

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Purulent. Purulent drainage is thick, yellow, and indicates the presence of infection. This type of drainage is typically seen in infected wounds. Choice B, Serous drainage, is thin, clear, and watery, which is normal in the initial stages of wound healing. Sanguineous drainage, choice C, is bright red and indicates fresh bleeding. Serosanguineous drainage, choice D, is pale pink to red and is a mixture of blood and serous fluid commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing.

4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

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