a nurse receives report about a client who has 09 sodium chloride infusing iv at 125 mlhr when the nurse performs the initial assessment he notes that
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A client is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride IV at 125 mL/hr. The nurse notes that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. The first step in the nursing process is assessment. By checking the IV tubing for obstruction, the nurse can assess and potentially correct any issues affecting the flow rate. This action may help to ensure that the prescribed infusion rate is maintained. Repositioning the client is not the priority at this stage as the issue seems related to the IV tubing. Documenting the intake or requesting a new prescription are not immediate actions needed to address the current situation with the IV fluid flow.

2. A client is to have mafenide (Sulfamylon) cream applied to burned areas. For which serious side effect of mafenide therapy should the LPN/LVN monitor this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metabolic acidosis is a serious side effect of mafenide therapy that should be closely monitored. Mafenide can lead to metabolic acidosis due to its inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, resulting in the accumulation of carbonic acid. Curling ulcer (Choice A) is a stress-related mucosal lesion that occurs in the duodenum, primarily due to severe burns, not directly related to mafenide therapy. Renal shutdown (Choice B) is not a common side effect of mafenide therapy. Hemolysis of red blood cells (Choice D) is not a recognized side effect of mafenide cream application.

3. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the LPN/LVN to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin sublingually. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is the priority action for a client with chest pain and a history of coronary artery disease. Nitroglycerin helps dilate the coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and providing rapid relief of chest pain. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG, measuring vital signs, and administering oxygen are important actions but should follow the administration of nitroglycerin in the management of chest pain in a client with coronary artery disease.

4. While auscultating a client's abdomen, a nurse hears a blowing sound over the aorta. The nurse should identify this sound as which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bruit. A bruit is a blowing sound indicating turbulent blood flow, often heard over the aorta. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A gallop is a cardiac sound resembling the sound of a galloping horse. A thrill is a vibration felt on palpation, and a murmur is a swooshing or whooshing sound heard during auscultation of the heart or blood vessels. In this scenario, the blowing sound over the aorta specifically indicates a bruit, which signifies turbulent blood flow and should be further assessed by the healthcare provider.

5. A staff nurse is teaching a newly hired nurse about alternatives to the use of restraints on clients who are confused. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging physical activity is an effective non-restraint intervention for managing confused clients. It helps reduce agitation, promotes circulation, and may decrease the need for restraints. Choice A is incorrect as using full-length side rails can potentially restrict a client's movement, which is counterproductive to avoiding restraints. Choice B, while emphasizing monitoring, does not directly address alternatives to restraint use. Choice D is also incorrect as removing clocks from the client's room does not directly address managing confusion and reducing the need for restraints.

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