Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride IV at 125 mL/hr. The nurse notes that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Reposition the client
• B. Document the client's IV intake in the medical record
• C. Request a new IV fluid prescription
• D. Check the IV tubing for obstruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. The first step in the nursing process is assessment. By checking the IV tubing for obstruction, the nurse can assess and potentially correct any issues affecting the flow rate. This action may help to ensure that the prescribed infusion rate is maintained. Repositioning the client is not the priority at this stage as the issue seems related to the IV tubing. Documenting the intake or requesting a new prescription are not immediate actions needed to address the current situation with the IV fluid flow.

2. The nurse is caring for a 17-month-old child with acetaminophen poisoning. Which laboratory reports should the nurse review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the drug's metabolism in the liver. Monitoring liver enzymes such as AST and ALT is crucial as they indicate liver function and damage. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice A) are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts (Choice B) are not directly related to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels (Choice C) assess kidney function, but liver enzymes are more specific for evaluating liver damage in acetaminophen poisoning.

3. A client with stage IV lung cancer is 3 days postoperative following a wedge resection. The client states, “I told myself that I would go through with the surgery and quit smoking, if I could just live long enough to attend my child’s wedding.” Based on the Kubler-Ross model, which stage of grief is the client experiencing?

• A. Anger
• B. Denial
• C. Bargaining
• D. Acceptance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is in the bargaining stage of grief according to the Kubler-Ross model. In this stage, individuals negotiate for more time to achieve specific goals or fulfill desires. The client's statement about quitting smoking to attend their child's wedding reflects this bargaining behavior. Anger (choice A) is characterized by frustration and resentment, denial (choice B) involves avoidance of reality, and acceptance (choice D) signifies coming to terms with the situation, none of which align with the client's current mindset of bargaining.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with acute pancreatitis. Which finding is most concerning?

• A. Pain radiating to the back
• B. Blood pressure of 95/60 mmHg
• C. Elevated serum amylase
• D. Absent bowel sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, a low blood pressure of 95/60 mmHg is the most concerning finding as it may indicate hypovolemia or shock, which are critical conditions requiring immediate intervention. Pain radiating to the back is a common symptom of pancreatitis but is not as immediately life-threatening as hypotension. Elevated serum amylase levels and absent bowel sounds are typical findings in acute pancreatitis and may indicate pancreatic inflammation and gastrointestinal motility issues, respectively, but they are not as acutely concerning as hypotension.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which site is most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to use?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal site
• C. Abdomen
• D. Dorsogluteal site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for administering subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin (Lovenox). Enoxaparin is typically administered in the abdomen due to better absorption and reduced risk of injury to underlying structures. The deltoid muscle is not recommended for subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin due to the potential risk of injury to underlying structures. The ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are more appropriate for intramuscular injections rather than subcutaneous injections.

Similar Questions