HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride IV at 125 mL/hr. The nurse notes that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Reposition the client
- B. Document the client's IV intake in the medical record
- C. Request a new IV fluid prescription
- D. Check the IV tubing for obstruction
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. The first step in the nursing process is assessment. By checking the IV tubing for obstruction, the nurse can assess and potentially correct any issues affecting the flow rate. This action may help to ensure that the prescribed infusion rate is maintained. Repositioning the client is not the priority at this stage as the issue seems related to the IV tubing. Documenting the intake or requesting a new prescription are not immediate actions needed to address the current situation with the IV fluid flow.
2. A client is postoperative following knee arthroplasty and requires the use of a thigh-length sequential compression device. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Ensure two fingers can fit under the sleeves.
- B. Ensure the device is not too tight to impede circulation.
- C. Position the client comfortably before applying the device.
- D. Use the device continuously to prevent blood clots.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when applying a thigh-length sequential compression device to a postoperative client is to ensure that two fingers can fit under the sleeves. This action helps prevent the device from being too tight, which could impede circulation. Choice B is incorrect because the device should not be too tight, as it could lead to circulation issues. Choice C is incorrect as the client should be in a comfortable position, not necessarily supine. Choice D is incorrect as sequential compression devices are typically used continuously to prevent blood clots.
3. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Gingival hyperplasia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.
4. A 25-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum. Which nursing diagnosis should have the highest priority?
- A. Fluid volume deficit
- B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
- C. Anxiety related to new situational crisis
- D. Activity intolerance related to fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a case of hyperemesis gravidarum, the priority nursing diagnosis should be addressing the Fluid volume deficit. This condition can lead to serious complications such as electrolyte imbalances and dehydration, which can endanger both the mother and the fetus if not managed promptly. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements is important but addressing the fluid volume deficit takes precedence as it poses an immediate threat. Anxiety related to new situational crisis and Activity intolerance related to fatigue are valid concerns, but they are secondary to the critical issue of fluid volume deficit in this scenario.
5. During passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, how should the nurse perform each movement for a patient with impaired mobility?
- A. The nurse moves each movement just to the point of resistance.
- B. The patient repeats each movement 5 times.
- C. The movement continues until the patient reports pain.
- D. The nurse completes each movement quickly and smoothly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, the nurse is responsible for moving the patient's joints through their range of motion. The correct technique involves performing movements slowly and smoothly, only going to the point of resistance without causing pain. This technique helps maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. Choice A is the correct answer as it reflects the appropriate technique for passive ROM exercises. Choices B and C are incorrect because the patient is not actively participating, and ROM exercises should not cause pain. Choice D is incorrect as movements should be done deliberately and not quickly.
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