Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride IV at 125 mL/hr. The nurse notes that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Reposition the client
• B. Document the client's IV intake in the medical record
• C. Request a new IV fluid prescription
• D. Check the IV tubing for obstruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. The first step in the nursing process is assessment. By checking the IV tubing for obstruction, the nurse can assess and potentially correct any issues affecting the flow rate. This action may help to ensure that the prescribed infusion rate is maintained. Repositioning the client is not the priority at this stage as the issue seems related to the IV tubing. Documenting the intake or requesting a new prescription are not immediate actions needed to address the current situation with the IV fluid flow.

2. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

3. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) is being treated. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL
• B. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) of 5.0 ng/mL
• C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose of 180 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A troponin level of 0.5 ng/mL is elevated, indicating myocardial damage, making it the most concerning finding in a client with a myocardial infarction (MI). Troponin is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle damage, and elevated levels suggest ongoing injury to the heart muscle. While Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) is also a cardiac enzyme, troponin is more specific and sensitive for myocardial damage. Serum potassium and blood glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in MI patients, but in this scenario, the elevated troponin level takes precedence as it directly reflects cardiac injury.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Loss of reflexes in the legs
• B. Decreased peripheral sensation
• C. Respiratory distress
• D. Muscle weakness in the arms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, respiratory distress is the most concerning finding as it can indicate progression to respiratory failure, which is a life-threatening complication. Loss of reflexes in the legs and muscle weakness in the arms are common manifestations of the condition but may not be as immediately life-threatening as respiratory distress. Decreased peripheral sensation is also a common symptom but is not as critical as respiratory distress in terms of immediate patient safety and management.

5. A client scheduled for arthroplasty expresses concern about the risk of acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following statements should the nurse make to the client?

• A. Donate autologous blood before the surgery
• B. Request a specific blood type from the donor
• C. Use blood from a family member
• D. Accept allogeneic blood without concerns

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make to the client is to 'Donate autologous blood before the surgery.' Autologous blood donation involves collecting and storing the client's own blood for potential use during surgery, which significantly reduces the risk of transfusion-related infections. This option directly addresses the client's concern about infection risk. Requesting a specific blood type from a donor (Choice B) is not as effective in reducing infection risk compared to autologous blood donation. Using blood from a family member (Choice C) carries the risk of transfusion reactions and infections due to compatibility issues. Accepting allogeneic blood without concerns (Choice D) does not address the client's specific concern about infection risk and is not the most appropriate option in this situation.

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