Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride IV at 125 mL/hr. The nurse notes that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Reposition the client
• B. Document the client's IV intake in the medical record
• C. Request a new IV fluid prescription
• D. Check the IV tubing for obstruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. The first step in the nursing process is assessment. By checking the IV tubing for obstruction, the nurse can assess and potentially correct any issues affecting the flow rate. This action may help to ensure that the prescribed infusion rate is maintained. Repositioning the client is not the priority at this stage as the issue seems related to the IV tubing. Documenting the intake or requesting a new prescription are not immediate actions needed to address the current situation with the IV fluid flow.

2. The healthcare professional is assessing a client who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Pain level of 8/10
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F
• D. Saturated abdominal dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention. This finding suggests a potential surgical site issue that needs urgent attention to prevent further complications. Absent bowel sounds, pain level, and a slightly elevated temperature are common post-operative findings that may not necessarily require immediate intervention compared to a saturated abdominal dressing. Absent bowel sounds can be common after surgery due to anesthesia but may resolve with time. Pain and slightly elevated temperature are expected post-operative findings that can be managed with appropriate pain relief and monitoring. However, a saturated abdominal dressing indicates a potential ongoing issue at the surgical site that needs prompt assessment and intervention to prevent complications.

3. After completing an assessment and determining that a client has a problem, what should the LPN/LVN do next?

• A. Determine the etiology of the problem.
• B. Prioritize nursing care interventions.
• C. Plan appropriate interventions.
• D. Collaborate with the client to set goals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After identifying a problem in a client, the next step for the LPN/LVN is to determine the etiology or cause of the problem. Understanding the root cause of the issue is essential as it guides the development of appropriate interventions. Option B, prioritizing nursing care interventions, is premature without knowing the cause of the problem. Option C, planning appropriate interventions, also relies on knowing the etiology first to ensure the interventions directly address the underlying issue. Collaborating with the client to set goals, as mentioned in option D, is important but typically comes after understanding the cause of the problem to ensure the goals are relevant and effective.

4. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?

• A. Testicular examination
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Fecal occult blood
• D. Prostate-specific antigen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.

5. Following major abdominal surgery, a client postoperative refuses to use the incentive spirometer. What is the nurse's priority?

• A. Determine the reason why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer.
• B. Insist that the client use the incentive spirometer.
• C. Administer pain medication to help the client use the spirometer.
• D. Document the refusal in the client’s medical record.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority in this situation is to determine the reason why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer. By understanding the client's concerns or barriers, the nurse can address them effectively and encourage the client to use the spirometer for optimal postoperative recovery. Insisting that the client use the spirometer without understanding the underlying reason may lead to further resistance. Administering pain medication as a solution does not address the root cause of refusal and may not be necessary if pain is not the primary reason for refusal. Documenting the refusal is important but should come after understanding the client's perspective to provide appropriate care and follow-up.

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