Nursing Elites

1. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

• A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
• B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
• C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
• D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
• B. Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
• C. Lock the remaining medication in the controlled substance cabinet
• D. Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in a sharps container

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In medication wastage situations involving controlled substances, it is crucial to have a second nurse observe and verify the disposal process. This practice ensures accountability and prevents any mishandling or diversion of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because notifying the pharmacy is not the immediate action required in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as locking the remaining medication in the controlled substance cabinet without proper witnessing does not ensure accountability. Choice D is incorrect as disposing of the vial with the remaining medication in a sharps container does not address the need for a witness to verify the wastage of the controlled substance.

3. A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance from the client's workplace. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client?

• A. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act
• B. Orders written by the healthcare provider
• C. A notarized original copy of advance directives brought in by the partner
• D. The clinical pathway protocol of the agency and the emergency department

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, when a client arrives unconscious, priority should be given to a notarized original copy of advance directives brought in by the partner. Advance directives are legal documents that specify a person's healthcare wishes and decision-making preferences in advance. These directives guide healthcare providers in delivering care according to the client's preferences when the client is unable to communicate. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act (Choice A) are important but do not provide specific care instructions. Orders written by the healthcare provider (Choice B) may not reflect the client's wishes. Clinical pathway protocols (Choice D) are valuable but do not address the individualized care preferences of the client.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a history of congestive heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Shortness of breath on exertion
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in a week
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs are concerning because they indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of congestive heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, requiring immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress and worsening heart failure. While shortness of breath on exertion, weight gain, and orthopnea are common signs and symptoms of heart failure, crackles specifically point to acute pulmonary edema or worsening congestion, making them the most concerning finding in this scenario.

5. A client has a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Provide a high-calorie diet.
• B. Encourage frequent rest periods.
• C. Restrict fluid intake.
• D. Increase iodine intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with hypothyroidism is to encourage frequent rest periods. Hypothyroidism often leads to fatigue, making rest essential for recovery and symptom management. Providing a high-calorie diet is not necessary unless the client has gained weight due to hypothyroidism. Restricting fluid intake is not indicated unless there are specific medical reasons for it. Increasing iodine intake is not recommended for primary hypothyroidism, as it is typically caused by autoimmune thyroiditis or other factors rather than iodine deficiency.

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