Nursing Elites

1. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

• A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
• B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
• C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
• D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.

2. A client who is postoperative is using an incentive spirometer. Into which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?

• A. Side-lying
• B. Supine
• C. Semi-Fowler’s
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct position for a postoperative client using an incentive spirometer is the Semi-Fowler’s position. Placing the client in Semi-Fowler’s or high-Fowler’s position maximizes lung expansion and the effectiveness of the incentive spirometer. Side-lying may not provide optimal lung expansion. The supine position is not ideal for postoperative clients using incentive spirometers as it may limit lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential complications postoperatively.

3. When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, what should the nurse do?

• A. Assess the skin every 4 hours.
• B. Limit the amount of fluid intake.
• C. Use a standardized tool such as the Braden Scale.
• D. Have special times for inspection to not interrupt routine care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, it is essential to use a standardized tool like the Braden Scale. This tool helps in systematically evaluating the patient's risk of developing pressure ulcers. Assessing the skin every 4 hours (Choice A) may be too frequent or unnecessary unless there are specific concerns or orders. Limiting fluid intake (Choice B) is not directly related to skin assessment in an immobilized patient. Having special times for inspection to avoid interrupting routine care (Choice D) is not as crucial as using a standardized tool for consistent and comprehensive skin assessment.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?

• A. Contact
• B. Droplet
• C. Airborne
• D. Protective

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Droplet. Droplet precautions are required for infections that spread via droplets larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as pharyngeal diphtheria. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Airborne precautions are for diseases that spread through small particles in the air. Protective precautions are not a standard precautionary measure for specific infections like pharyngeal diphtheria.

5. A nurse is developing an individualized plan of care for a patient. Which action is important for the nurse to take?

• A. Establish goals that are measurable and realistic.
• B. Set goals that are a little beyond the capabilities of the patient.
• C. Use the nurse's own judgment and not be swayed by family desires.
• D. Explain that without taking alignment risks, there can be no progress.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When developing an individualized plan of care for a patient, the nurse must set goals that are specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and time-bound (SMART). Choice A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of establishing goals that are measurable and realistic, ensuring they are attainable within a specific timeframe. Setting goals that are beyond the capabilities of the patient (Choice B) can lead to frustration and lack of progress. Using only the nurse's judgment and disregarding family desires (Choice C) may not consider important aspects of the patient's social support and preferences. Explaining that progress requires taking alignment risks (Choice D) is not a standard approach in nursing care planning and may confuse the patient or hinder trust in the nurse's decision-making.

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