HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse at a screening clinic is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis. At which of the following anatomical areas should the nurse place the stethoscope to auscultate the aortic valve?
- A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
- B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
- C. Left sternal border
- D. Fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct placement to auscultate the aortic valve is at the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum, which coincides with the aortic area. The choice stating 'Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line' is the correct answer for auscultating the aortic valve. Placing the stethoscope at the left sternal border would be more suitable for listening to the tricuspid valve. The fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line is the recommended area for auscultating the mitral valve. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer for assessing the aortic valve in a client with a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis.
2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
- B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
- C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
- D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.
3. A client who is postoperative is being taught how to use a flow-oriented incentive spirometer. Which of the following instructions should be included by the nurse?
- A. Cough deeply after each use.
- B. Take a deep breath and hold for 10 seconds.
- C. Breathe in slowly and deeply to raise the ball or piston.
- D. Exhale forcefully before using the spirometer.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct technique for using a flow-oriented incentive spirometer involves breathing in slowly and deeply to raise the ball or piston. This action helps to expand the lungs and improve lung function. Option A is incorrect as coughing deeply after each use is not part of using the spirometer. Option B is incorrect as holding the breath for 10 seconds is not the correct instruction for using the spirometer. Option D is incorrect as exhaling forcefully before using the spirometer is not the appropriate step in using this device.
4. While interviewing a client, the nurse records the assessment in the electronic health record. Which statement is most accurate regarding electronic documentation during an interview?
- A. The client's comfort level is increased when the nurse maintains eye contact while typing notes into the record
- B. The interview process is hindered by electronic documentation and may disrupt the flow of conversation
- C. The nurse has limited ability to observe nonverbal communication while entering the assessment electronically
- D. Completing the electronic record during an interview is optional and not a legal obligation of the examining nurse
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most accurate statement is that the nurse has a limited ability to observe nonverbal communication while entering the assessment electronically. This is because the nurse's focus is on typing or inputting data, which may lead to missing important nonverbal cues from the client. Choices A and B are incorrect as they do not address the limitation of observing nonverbal cues. Choice A is incorrect because breaking eye contact to type notes may hinder the client's comfort level. Choice B is incorrect because it states that electronic documentation enhances the interview process, which may not always be the case. Choice D is incorrect as completing the electronic record during an interview is typically a standard practice but not a legal obligation.
5. An 80-year-old client admitted with a diagnosis of a possible cerebral vascular accident has had a blood pressure ranging from 180/110 to 160/100 over the past 2 hours. The nurse has also noted increased lethargy. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?
- A. Slurred speech
- B. Incontinence
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Rapid pulse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Slurred speech is a classic sign of a worsening stroke, suggesting a potential blockage or hemorrhage affecting speech centers in the brain. Prompt reporting of this symptom to the healthcare provider is crucial for immediate evaluation and intervention. While incontinence (Choice B) is important to monitor, it is not considered an immediate priority over slurred speech in this context. Muscle weakness (Choice C) and rapid pulse (Choice D) are also relevant in stroke assessment, but slurred speech takes precedence due to its strong association with neurological deficits in the setting of a possible cerebral vascular accident.
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