Nursing Elites

1. After corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS), what should the nurse teach a parent to do immediately after a feeding to limit vomiting?

• A. Rock the infant.
• B. Place the infant in an infant seat.
• C. Place the infant flat on the right side.
• D. Keep the infant awake with sensory stimulation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS), placing the infant in an infant seat is the correct action to take immediately after feeding to limit vomiting. This position helps keep the head elevated, reducing the risk of vomiting. Rocking the infant (Choice A) may agitate the stomach and increase the likelihood of vomiting. Placing the infant flat on the right side (Choice C) is not recommended as it does not encourage proper digestion and may increase the risk of vomiting. Keeping the infant awake with sensory stimulation (Choice D) does not address the positioning concern related to vomiting in this specific post-operative scenario.

2. What should be included in the teaching plan for parents of an infant diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU)?

• A. Mental retardation occurs if PKU is untreated.
• B. Testing for PKU is done immediately after birth.
• C. Treatment for PKU includes lifelong dietary management.
• D. PKU is transmitted by an autosomal recessive gene.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Mental retardation occurs if PKU is untreated.' Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder that, if left untreated with dietary management, can lead to severe mental retardation due to the accumulation of phenylalanine. It is crucial for parents to understand the potential consequences of untreated PKU to emphasize the importance of early and consistent treatment. Choice B is incorrect because testing for PKU is typically done through newborn screening shortly after birth, not immediately. Choice C is incorrect as treatment for PKU primarily involves strict dietary management that restricts phenylalanine intake, not lifelong medications. Choice D is incorrect as PKU is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, meaning that both parents must pass on a mutated gene for the disorder to manifest.

3. A child with a diagnosis of gastroenteritis is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance
• B. Encouraging regular exercise
• C. Administering antipyretics
• D. Administering antibiotics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance. Gastroenteritis is characterized by inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract leading to diarrhea and vomiting, which can result in dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, the priority nursing intervention is to monitor and maintain the child's fluid and electrolyte balance to prevent complications. Encouraging regular exercise (Choice B) may not be appropriate initially for a child with gastroenteritis who needs rest and fluid replacement. Administering antipyretics (Choice C) is not the priority unless the child has a fever. Administering antibiotics (Choice D) is not indicated for viral gastroenteritis, which is the most common cause of the condition.

4. A school nurse is teaching parents of school-age children about the importance of immunizations for childhood communicable diseases. What preventable disease may cause the complication of encephalitis?

• A. Varicella
• B. Scarlet fever
• C. Poliomyelitis
• D. Whooping cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Varicella (chickenpox), choice A. Varicella can lead to the complication of encephalitis, which is the inflammation of the brain. Scarlet fever (choice B) is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria and does not typically lead to encephalitis. Poliomyelitis (choice C) is a viral infection that affects the nervous system but does not directly cause encephalitis. Whooping cough (choice D), also known as pertussis, primarily affects the respiratory system and does not commonly result in encephalitis.

5. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Full-thickness burns involve the destruction of all layers of skin, extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn causes severe damage and loss of sensation due to nerve destruction. Choice A, erythema and pain, describes superficial burns (first-degree). Choice B, skin showing erythema followed by blister formation, describes partial-thickness burns (second-degree). Choice D, destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone, goes beyond the description of full-thickness burns.

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