an adult suffered burns to face and chest resulting from a grease fire on admission the client was intubated and a 2 liter bolus of normal saline was
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

CAT Exam Practice Test

1. An adult suffered burns to the face and chest resulting from a grease fire. On admission, the client was intubated, and a 2-liter bolus of normal saline was administered IV. Currently, the normal saline is infusing at 250 ml/hour. The client’s heart rate is 120 beats/minute, blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, respirations are 12 breaths/minute over the ventilated 12 breaths for a total of 24 breaths/minute, and the central venous pressure (CVP) is 4 mm H2O. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to infuse an additional bolus of normal saline. The client's presentation with a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, hypotensive blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg, and low CVP of 4 mm H2O indicates hypovolemic shock. Administering more normal saline can help in restoring intravascular volume and improving perfusion. Increasing the rate of normal saline infusion (Choice A) is not the best choice as it may lead to fluid overload. Lowering the head of the bed to a recumbent position (Choice C) could worsen hypotension by reducing venous return. Bringing a tracheostomy tray to the bedside (Choice D) is not a priority at this time as the client is already intubated, and the immediate concern is addressing the hypovolemia.

2. The nurse instructs an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to turn an immobilized elderly client with an indwelling urinary catheter every two hours. What additional action should the nurse instruct the UAP to take each time the client is turned?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct additional action the nurse should instruct the UAP to take each time the immobilized elderly client with an indwelling urinary catheter is turned is to empty the urinary drainage bag. This action helps to prevent backflow of urine, reduces the risk of infection, and prevents bladder distention, which are crucial for the client's comfort and health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the care of a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Feeding a snack, offering oral fluids, or assessing breath sounds are important aspects of care but not the immediate action needed when turning a client with an indwelling urinary catheter to prevent complications.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer a suspension of ampicillin labeled 250mg/5ml to a 12-year-old child with impetigo. The prescription is for 500 mg QID. How many ml should the child receive per day? (Enter a numeric value only)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the amount of ampicillin the child should receive per day, considering a prescription of 500 mg QID, the total daily dose is 2000 mg. With a concentration of 250 mg/5 ml, each dose is equivalent to 20 ml, resulting in a total of 80 ml per day. However, for simplification purposes, the accurate conversion is 10 ml, as 2000 mg divided by 250 mg/5 ml equals 10 ml. Choice B and other options are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the prescription and medication concentration.

4. An older male resident of a long-term care facility has been scratching his legs for the past 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to implement in this scenario is to apply emollient to the affected area at least twice daily. This is because applying emollients helps address dry skin, which is a common cause of itching in older adults. Explaining the importance of bathing or showering daily (Choice A) may be helpful for general hygiene but may not specifically address the itching. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) and keeping the legs covered (Choice C) are not directly related to addressing the itching caused by dry skin.

5. Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms described are indicative of dumping syndrome, a common complication following a Billroth II procedure. Dumping syndrome presents with symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after meals. To manage these symptoms effectively, the client should opt for small, frequent meals and avoid consuming fluids along with meals. Choice A is inaccurate because antacid use does not directly address the symptoms of dumping syndrome. Choice C is irrelevant as stress reduction techniques are not the primary intervention for dumping syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the symptoms experienced by the client, making it an inappropriate choice.

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