an adult suffered burns to face and chest resulting from a grease fire on admission the client was intubated and a 2 liter bolus of normal saline was
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

CAT Exam Practice Test

1. An adult suffered burns to the face and chest resulting from a grease fire. On admission, the client was intubated, and a 2-liter bolus of normal saline was administered IV. Currently, the normal saline is infusing at 250 ml/hour. The client’s heart rate is 120 beats/minute, blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, respirations are 12 breaths/minute over the ventilated 12 breaths for a total of 24 breaths/minute, and the central venous pressure (CVP) is 4 mm H2O. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to infuse an additional bolus of normal saline. The client's presentation with a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, hypotensive blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg, and low CVP of 4 mm H2O indicates hypovolemic shock. Administering more normal saline can help in restoring intravascular volume and improving perfusion. Increasing the rate of normal saline infusion (Choice A) is not the best choice as it may lead to fluid overload. Lowering the head of the bed to a recumbent position (Choice C) could worsen hypotension by reducing venous return. Bringing a tracheostomy tray to the bedside (Choice D) is not a priority at this time as the client is already intubated, and the immediate concern is addressing the hypovolemia.

2. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

3. A client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. Which snack is best for the nurse to recommend to the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Plain yogurt sweetened with raw honey. This option is the best choice for a client with severe neutropenia undergoing chemotherapy because it is less likely to harbor harmful bacteria, which could cause infections due to the weakened immune system. Peanuts in the shell (choice B) may carry a risk of contamination, while aged farmer's cheese with celery sticks (choice C) and baked apples topped with dried raisins (choice D) may not be as safe as plain yogurt for a client with severe neutropenia.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes amoxicillin (Amoxil) 1.5 grams PO daily, in equally divided doses to be administered every 8 hours. The medication is available in a bottle labeled, “Amoxicillin (Amoxil) suspension 200 mg/5 ml.” How many ml should the nurse administer every 8 hours? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the amount in ml that the nurse should administer every 8 hours, first, determine the amount of amoxicillin needed per dose. 1.5 grams daily divided by 3 doses equals 0.5 grams per dose. Since 0.5 grams is equivalent to 500 mg (1 gram = 1000 mg), and each 5 ml of the suspension contains 200 mg of amoxicillin, the nurse needs to administer (500 mg / 200 mg) * 5 ml = 12.5 ml every 8 hours. Therefore, the correct answer is 12.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

5. A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction 24 hours ago comes to the nurse’s station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which nursing problem should the nurse formulate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ineffective coping related to denial.' The client's behavior of wanting to go home and feeling much better shortly after a myocardial infarction indicates denial of the severity of his condition. This denial can lead to ineffective coping mechanisms, hindering his recovery and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the client's behavior is not primarily driven by anxiety about the treatment plan, deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes, or decisional conflict due to stress, but rather by denial and ineffective coping mechanisms.

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