HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. An adult suffered burns to the face and chest resulting from a grease fire. On admission, the client was intubated, and a 2-liter bolus of normal saline was administered IV. Currently, the normal saline is infusing at 250 ml/hour. The client’s heart rate is 120 beats/minute, blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, respirations are 12 breaths/minute over the ventilated 12 breaths for a total of 24 breaths/minute, and the central venous pressure (CVP) is 4 mm H2O. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Increase the rate of normal saline infusion
- B. Infuse an additional bolus of normal saline
- C. Lower the head of the bed to a recumbent position
- D. Bring a tracheostomy tray to the bedside
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention is to infuse an additional bolus of normal saline. The client's presentation with a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, hypotensive blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg, and low CVP of 4 mm H2O indicates hypovolemic shock. Administering more normal saline can help in restoring intravascular volume and improving perfusion. Increasing the rate of normal saline infusion (Choice A) is not the best choice as it may lead to fluid overload. Lowering the head of the bed to a recumbent position (Choice C) could worsen hypotension by reducing venous return. Bringing a tracheostomy tray to the bedside (Choice D) is not a priority at this time as the client is already intubated, and the immediate concern is addressing the hypovolemia.
2. Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a compound fracture of the leg, a male client complains of “a tingly sensation” in his left foot. The nurse determines the client’s left pedal pulses are diminished. Based on these findings, what is the client’s greatest risk?
- A. Reduce pulmonary ventilation and oxygenation related to fat embolism.
- B. Neurovascular and circulation compromise related to compartment syndrome.
- C. Wound infection and delayed healing due to fractured bone protrusion.
- D. Venous stasis and thrombophlebitis related to postoperative immobility.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that can occur following trauma or surgery, leading to compromised neurovascular status in the affected limb. Symptoms include pain, paresthesia (tingling sensation), and diminished pulses. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can result in tissue damage and potential loss of limb function. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the neurovascular compromise associated with compartment syndrome.
3. The nurse implements a tertiary prevention program for type 2 diabetes in a rural health clinic. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?
- A. Clients who developed disease complications promptly received rehabilitation
- B. More than 50% of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process
- C. Only 30% of clients did not attend self-management education sessions
- D. Average client scores improved on a specific risk factor knowledge test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in tertiary prevention, the focus is on managing complications and providing rehabilitation. Choice B is more aligned with primary prevention as it focuses on early diagnosis. Choice C's attendance in education sessions is not a direct indicator of managing complications. Choice D's improvement in knowledge does not directly measure the program's effectiveness in managing complications.
4. An 8-year-old child who weighs 60 pounds receives an order for Polycilin (Ampicillin) suspension 25 mg/kg/day divided into a dose every 8 hours. The medication is labeled '125 mg/5 ml'. How many ml should the nurse administer per dose every 8 hours?
- A. 5
- B. 10
- C. 15
- D. 20
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Calculate the daily dose first: 60 pounds x 25 mg/kg = 1500 mg/day. Divide by 3 doses = 500 mg/dose. Convert to mL: (500 mg / 125 mg) x 5 ml = 20 ml. However, the question asks for the dose per administration every 8 hours, which is 1/3 of the daily dose. So, the correct calculation should be (20 ml / 3) = 6.67 ml, which rounds to 5 ml. Therefore, the correct answer is 5 ml. Choice B (10 ml) is incorrect because it doesn't consider the frequency of dosing. Choice C (15 ml) is incorrect as it overestimates the dose. Choice D (20 ml) is incorrect as it represents the total daily dose, not the dose per administration every 8 hours.
5. A client with metastatic breast cancer refuses to participate in a clinical trial and further treatments. Her children ask the nurse to convince their mother to reconsider. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Ask the client if she fully understands the decision she has made with her children present.
- B. Discuss the success of clinical trials and ask the client to consider participating for one month.
- C. Explain to the family that they must accept their mother’s decision.
- D. Explore the client’s decision to refuse treatment and offer support.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is to explore the client's decision to refuse treatment and offer support. In this situation, it is crucial for the nurse to respect the client's autonomy and decisions regarding her own health. By exploring the client's reasons for refusal, the nurse can better understand her perspective and provide appropriate support. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on questioning the client in front of her children, potentially pressuring her. Option B is inappropriate as it disregards the client's autonomy and tries to persuade her to participate. Option C is also incorrect as it dismisses the client's decision and fails to address the family's concerns in a supportive manner.
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