Nursing Elites

1. A young mother of three children complains of increased anxiety during her annual physical exam. What information should the LPN/LVN obtain first?

• A. Sexual activity patterns.
• B. Nutritional history.
• C. Leisure activities.
• D. Financial stressors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should first obtain the nutritional history in this scenario. Nutrition plays a crucial role in mental health, and deficiencies or imbalances in diet can contribute to anxiety symptoms. Understanding the mother's nutritional intake can help identify any factors exacerbating her anxiety. Sexual activity patterns are not directly relevant to her anxiety symptoms unless specifically indicated. Leisure activities and financial stressors may be important but are secondary to addressing the potential impact of nutrition on anxiety.

2. A client who has recently started using a behind-the-ear hearing aid is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the use of assistive devices?

• A. “I will be sure to remove my hearing aid before taking a shower.”
• B. “I will keep my hearing aid in at all times, even when sleeping.”
• C. “I will clean my hearing aid with alcohol.”
• D. “I will turn off my hearing aid when not in use.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. It is crucial for the client to remove the hearing aid before showering to prevent damage from moisture. Choice B is incorrect as wearing the hearing aid all the time, including during sleep, is not recommended and can cause discomfort or harm. Choice C is incorrect as alcohol can damage hearing aids; they should be cleaned with a solution recommended by the manufacturer to prevent harm. Choice D is incorrect because hearing aids should not be turned off when not in use; instead, they should be stored properly following the manufacturer's instructions to maintain functionality and battery life.

3. A nurse is giving a change-of-shift report about a client he admitted earlier that day who has pneumonia. Which of the following pieces of information is the priority for the nurse to provide?

• A. Breath sounds
• B. Client’s history of smoking
• C. Current medication list
• D. Client’s family history of respiratory illness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with pneumonia, assessing breath sounds is crucial as it provides immediate information about the client's respiratory status. Changes in breath sounds could indicate complications like fluid accumulation or worsening pneumonia. While the client's history of smoking (Choice B), current medication list (Choice C), and family history of respiratory illness (Choice D) are important factors to consider, they are not as urgent or directly related to the client's immediate condition as assessing breath sounds.

4. A nurse delegates a position change to a nursing assistive personnel. The nurse instructs the assistive personnel (AP) to place the patient in the lateral position. Which finding by the nurse indicates a correct outcome?

• A. Patient is lying on side.
• B. Patient is lying on back.
• C. Patient is lying semiprone.
• D. Patient is lying on abdomen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Patient is lying on side.' In the side-lying (or lateral) position, the patient rests on the side with the major portion of body weight on the dependent hip and shoulder. Choice B, 'Patient is lying on back,' is incorrect as it describes a supine position. Choice C, 'Patient is lying semiprone,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient is partially lying on the abdomen. Choice D, 'Patient is lying on abdomen,' is incorrect as it describes a prone position where the patient is lying face down.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

• A. 42 gtt/min
• B. 83 gtt/min
• C. 125 gtt/min
• D. 250 gtt/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

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