HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. How should the nurse transcribe the dosage of this medication on the client's medical record?
- A. 0.3 mg
- B. 0.3 mg
- C. 0.30 mg
- D. 3/10 mg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct way to transcribe the dosage of three tenths of a milligram of levothyroxine IV STAT is 0.3 mg. When expressing decimals less than 1, there should be a leading zero before the decimal point. Choice A is incorrect (.3 mg) because it lacks the leading zero. Choice C (0.30 mg) is incorrect as it includes a trailing zero after the decimal point, which is unnecessary. Choice D (3/10 mg) is incorrect as it presents the dosage as a fraction, which is not the standard format for transcribing medication dosages. Therefore, B (0.3 mg) is the most appropriate and accurate way to document this prescription on the client's medical record.
2. A client is scheduled for a total laryngectomy. Which of the following interventions is the priority for the nurse?
- A. Schedule a support session for the client.
- B. Explain the techniques of esophageal speech.
- C. Review the use of artificial larynx with the client.
- D. Determine the client's reading ability.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority intervention for a client scheduled for a total laryngectomy is to explain the techniques of esophageal speech. This is crucial for the client's post-surgery communication. Option A, scheduling a support session, is important but not the priority as ensuring the client can communicate effectively comes first. Option C, reviewing the use of artificial larynx, is relevant but not the priority compared to teaching esophageal speech. Option D, determining the client's reading ability, is not as critical as ensuring the client learns a primary method of communication following the laryngectomy.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.
4. At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?
- A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
- B. Fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
- C. Third intercostal space to the left of the sternum
- D. Fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the aortic valve is the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. This area corresponds to the aortic valve area where aortic valve sounds are best heard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect for auscultating the aortic valve. The fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the mitral valve is best heard, the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the pulmonic valve is best heard, and the fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line is where the tricuspid valve is best auscultated.
5. A client has a terminal diagnosis and their health is declining. The client requests information about advance directives. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Offering to discuss advance directives and provide brochures respects the client's request and provides information.
- B. Informing the client that advance directives are not necessary at this time is incorrect as they play a crucial role in end-of-life care.
- C. Scheduling a meeting with the family to discuss advance directives is not the most appropriate response as the client directly requested information.
- D. Directing the client to ask their provider about advance directives does not directly address the client's request for information.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with a terminal illness asks about advance directives, it is essential to provide the information they seek. Choice A is the correct response as it acknowledges the client's request and offers to discuss advance directives while providing additional resources in the form of brochures. This approach empowers the client to make informed decisions about their end-of-life care. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the client's request or provide the information the client is seeking. Choice B dismisses the importance of advance directives, which are crucial in end-of-life care planning. Choice C involves the family unnecessarily when the client directly requested information. Choice D deflects the responsibility back to the client to seek information from their provider instead of addressing their immediate request.
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