HESI LPN
HESI CAT
1. A young adult male who is being seen at the employee health care clinic for an annual assessment tells the nurse that his mother was diagnosed with schizophrenia when she was his age and that life with a schizophrenic mother was difficult indeed. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Ask the client if he is worried about becoming schizophrenic at the age his mother was diagnosed.
- B. Encourage the client to seek genetic counseling to determine his risk for mental illness.
- C. Inform the client that his mother’s schizophrenia has affected his psychological development.
- D. Tell the client that mental illness has a familial predisposition so he should see a psychiatrist.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Genetic counseling can help assess risk and provide guidance for the client’s concerns about potential hereditary conditions.
2. In what order should the nurse assess a lethargic one-hour-old infant brought to the nursery?
- A. Heel stick
- B. Respirations
- C. Heart rate
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When assessing a lethargic one-hour-old infant, the nurse should prioritize assessing the most critical parameters first. Temperature and heart rate are vital signs that provide immediate information about the infant's well-being. Therefore, the correct order of assessment should be temperature, heart rate, respirations, and then a heel stick. Temperature is crucial to determine if the infant is hypothermic or hyperthermic, while heart rate gives insight into the circulatory system's function. Respirations follow to evaluate the infant's breathing pattern. Lastly, the heel stick is important for certain screenings but is not as urgent as evaluating temperature and heart rate in a lethargic infant.
3. The nurse identifies the presence of clear fluid on the surgical dressing of a client who just returned to the unit following lumbar spinal surgery. What action should the nurse implement immediately?
- A. Change the dressing using a compression bandage
- B. Test fluid on the dressing for glucose
- C. Document the findings in the electronic medical record
- D. Mark drainage area with a pen and continue to monitor
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement immediately upon identifying clear fluid on the surgical dressing post-lumbar surgery is to test the fluid for glucose. Clear fluid could indicate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, and testing for glucose can help confirm this. Changing the dressing using a compression bandage (Choice A) without further assessment could lead to complications. Documenting the findings (Choice C) is important but not as immediate as confirming the presence of CSF. Marking the drainage area with a pen and monitoring (Choice D) does not address the need for immediate confirmation of CSF leakage.
4. A client with a history of dementia has become increasingly confused at night and is picking at an abdominal surgical dressing and the tape securing the intravenous (IV) line. The abdominal dressing is no longer occlusive, and the IV insertion site is pink. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Replace the IV site with a smaller gauge.
- B. Redress the abdominal incision.
- C. Leave the lights on in the room at night.
- D. Apply soft bilateral wrist restraints.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia who is becoming increasingly confused at night and interfering with dressings and IV lines is to leave the lights on in the room at night. This intervention can help reduce confusion and disorientation. Choice A is incorrect because changing the IV site gauge is not the priority in this situation. Choice B is not necessary unless there are signs of infection or other complications at the abdominal incision site, which are not mentioned in the scenario. Choice D should be avoided as using restraints should be a last resort and is not indicated in this case.
5. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client’s B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Measure the client’s oxygen saturation before taking further action
- B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
- C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
- D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevated BNP levels in a client with heart failure may indicate worsening heart failure. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take when encountering an elevated BNP before administering furosemide is to hold the dose and contact the healthcare provider for further guidance. This precaution is necessary to ensure the client's safety and prevent potential complications. Options A and B are incorrect as they do not address the issue of the elevated BNP, which is crucial in this situation. Option C is also incorrect because administering furosemide without consulting the healthcare provider could be harmful if the client's condition is deteriorating.
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