a young adult male who is being seen at the employee health care clinic for an annual assessment tells the nurse that his mother was diagnosed with sc
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Nursing Elites

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1. A young adult male who is being seen at the employee health care clinic for an annual assessment tells the nurse that his mother was diagnosed with schizophrenia when she was his age and that life with a schizophrenic mother was difficult indeed. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Genetic counseling can help assess risk and provide guidance for the client’s concerns about potential hereditary conditions.

2. What nursing intervention is most important to implement after a client has completed a myelogram?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neurovascular assessment of the lower extremities. After a myelogram, it is crucial to monitor the neurovascular status to detect any signs of complications such as impaired circulation or nerve damage. This assessment helps in identifying early signs of vascular compromise or neurological deficits. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority after a myelogram. Lie-sit-stand blood pressure measurement is not directly related to post-myelogram care. Abdominal assessment and skin assessment are important but not the priority immediately after this procedure.

3. A client is admitted to the hospital with a serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L, distended neck veins, and lung crackles. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client presents with signs of fluid overload and hyponatremia. Restricting oral fluid intake is the appropriate intervention to manage fluid overload and correct hyponatremia. Increasing the intake of salty foods (Choice A) and administering NaCl supplements (Choice B) would exacerbate the sodium imbalance. Holding the client's loop diuretic (Choice D) is not directly related to addressing the fluid overload and hyponatremia.

4. A client has had several episodes of clear, watery diarrhea that started yesterday. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in a client experiencing clear, watery diarrhea is to review the client's current list of medications. Certain medications can cause diarrhea as a side effect, so identifying any potential culprits is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not appropriate for diarrhea, as antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not diarrhea. Assessing for hemorrhoids (Choice B) is not the priority when the client is experiencing watery diarrhea; addressing the root cause is crucial. Checking the client’s hemoglobin level (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed for this situation as it does not directly address the cause of diarrhea.

5. A client with complaints of shortness of breath and abdominal pain 1 week after bariatric surgery is admitted for follow-up evaluation. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg indicates possible hypovolemia or shock, which requires immediate attention. Hypotension can be a sign of decreased perfusion to vital organs, potentially leading to organ failure. The other options, such as a rectal temperature of 101°F, complaints of left shoulder pain, or sustained sinus tachycardia, while important, do not present the same level of immediate threat to the client's well-being as a critically low blood pressure.

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